Who good at angles ?

Answer:

Refer to the attached file

Hope it helps..

Answer:

[tex]Area = 4 \pi \ cm^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]Area = \pi r^2 = \pi \times 2^2 = 4 \pi \ cm^2[/tex]

Answer:

A = 4 cm squaree

this us because u multiply π r and square it. sorry if it's confusing

Answer:

25

Step-by-step explanation:

5x5=25

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

25 boys

Explanation:

Because if there are 5 girls in the class then that means that you have to multiply the ratio of 5:1 by 5, which equals 25:5, meaning there’s 25 boys in the class.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the square root is 0.08/8

Answer:

C. HL

Step-by-step explanation:

The diagram given shows that the hypotenuse length and the length of a leg of one right triangle is congruent to the hypotenuse and corresponding leg length of the other. Based on Hypotenus-Leg criterion, the two right triangles is proved to be congruent because it meets the criterion of HL.

Step-by-step explanation:

1st one right angle

Right angle is of 90°

and 70° is given so subtract them

90-70=30 so y is 30°

2nd one

35° given and

[tex] \frac{35}{7} = 5[/tex]

so 7x5=35

t=5

$ [tex]$163.44[/tex] money will she have spent on coffee by the end of the year.

PEDMAS rule states that the order of operation starts with the parentheses first or the calculation which is enclosed in brackets. Then the operation is performed on exponents(degree or square roots) and later we do operations on division & multiplication and at last addition and subtraction.

According to the question

Monique goes out for coffee once per week.

She has already spent $40.86 this year on her coffees and each one is $4.54.

There are 27 weeks left in this school year for Monique.

If she continues getting coffee at this rate, money will she have spent on coffee by the end of the year:

Based on the given conditions

[tex]40.86 + 27 \times 4.54[/tex]

By using PEDMAS rule, first we have to multiply 27 and 4.54

= [tex]40.86 + 122.58[/tex]

By using PEDMAS rule, first we have to add 40.86 and 122.58

= [tex]163.44[/tex]

Thus, $163.44 money will she have spent on coffee by the end of the year.

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Answer:

a. 70 gallons of water were leaked each month.

Step-by-step explanation:

Set up an equation:

Variable x = gallons leaked each month

210/3 = x/1

Cross multiply:

210 × 1 = 3 × x

210 = 3x

Divide by 3 to isolate the variable:

70 = x

The division part is only 210 ÷ 3 = x. I wrote it down this way so you can see how I came to this equation.

Check your work:

210/3 = 70/1

210 × 1 = 3 × 70

210 = 210

Correct!

Answer:

521

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

Solve for the middle side, then  for x using Pythagorean Theorem.

[tex]A^2 + B^2 = C^2\\\\\\6^2 + 8^2 = C^2\\\\100 = C^2\\\\C = 10\\\\\\\\A^2 + 10^2 = 12^2\\\\A^2 + 100 = 144\\\\A^2 = 44\\\\A^2 = 2\sqrt{11} <-Answer[/tex]

#teamtrees #PAW (Plant And Water)

Answer:

84 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

4 inches× 7 inches=28inches

28 inches×3feet=84feet

-15+11=-4 so Maggie has -4 in her account

Answer: $108199

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1) Find the deposit cost

35/100 × 89540 = 31339

Step 2) Find the total cost of the monthly payments

2135 × 36 = 76860

Step 3) Find the final cost

31339 + 76860 = $108199

Answer:

90 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

V=LxWxH

V= 10(3)(3)

=90 cm^3

Answer:

i dont know this answer but the answer will be 2log3 ok cheak it clearly wheather it is right or wrong

Given:

A quadratic monomial with a leading coefficient of 6.

A linear binomial with a leading coefficient of 2.

To find:

The mathematical terms for the given statements.

Solution:

Monomial: The expression with single term.

Binomial: The expression with two terms.

Quadratic: Highest power of the variable is 2.

Linear: Highest power of the variable is 1.

Coefficient: In the product of a number and a variable, the number is known as the coefficient of that variable.

The first statement is "A quadratic monomial with a leading coefficient of 6".

Quadratic monomial means single term with degree 2. The leading coefficient of 6. So, the term is [tex]6x^2[/tex].

The second statement is "A linear binomial with a leading coefficient of 2".

Linear binomial means [tex]ax+b[/tex], where a and b are real values. The leading coefficient is 2. So, [tex]a=2[/tex].

Let [tex]b=1[/tex], then the required linear binomial is [tex]2x+1[/tex].

Therefore, a quadratic monomial with a leading coefficient of 6 is [tex]6x^2[/tex].

A linear binomial with a leading coefficient of 2 is [tex]2x+1[/tex].

Answer:

The answer should be t > s. (B) is the answer.

Answer:

[tex] \sqrt{2} =1.41421356237...[/tex]

Answer:

The proof that √2 is indeed irrational is usually found in college level math texts, but it isn't that difficult to follow. It does not rely on computers at all, but instead is a "proof by contradiction": if √2 WERE a rational number, we'd get a contradiction.

...

A proof that the square root of 2 is irrational.

2 = (2k)2/b2

b2 = 2k2

price of 3Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

5(x-1)-2

5(2-1)-2

5×1-2

5-2

3

Hope this helps you :)

please mark brainliest

Answer:

recursive

Step-by-step explanation:

recursive lets us find the next term using a formula of the term preceding it or coming before it.

The type of rule in which you are given the first term and then your equation gives you a method for finding the next term in a sequence is called Recursion

Recursive function  is a function that repeats or uses its own previous term to calculate subsequent terms and thus forms a sequence of terms . Example : Arithmetic progression , geometric progression etc

so, the type of rule in which you are given the first term and then your equation gives you a method for finding the next term in a sequence is called Recursion

Learn more about Recursion

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Answer:

[tex]8 {p}^{3} {q}^{3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it is helpful....

Answer: The answer is y= f(x+1)+5

Step-by-step explanation: The reason is that when you are translating the graph, the information in the parenthesis (In this case: (x+1)) is always on the x axis moving either left or right. You just go one in the opposite direction of what the sign is, so since the sign in the parenthesis is "+" you would go left in the opposite direction. Then, for the upward translation, you would have to move 5 units upward and this is done by just adding five to the end of it.

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

-2,3,4,5,6-18 from least to greatest

Step-by-step explanation:

The graph of the function y=|x| is as shown in the attached diagram. The only possible translation of this graph right and up is option A. (In option B graph is translated right and down, in option C- left and up and in option D - left and down). Answer: correct choice is A.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Just did it

equation for first figure=2x+y=2

equation for second figure= 4x-y=8

(use formula x/a+y/b=1)

where, a=x component and b= y component..

Answer:

21

Step-by-step explanation:

9 + 6^2 / 3

Follow PEMDAS:

9 + 36 / 3

9 + 12

21

Hope this helps, good luck! :)

Answer:

( a + 3 ) ( 5c + q )

Step-by-step explanation:

5c ( a + 3 ) + q ( a + 3 )

= ( a + 3 ) ( 5c + q )

Answer:

A. 0.4

B.0.9

C.0.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answers:

===========================================

Explanation:

Part (a)

P(winning) = 0.6 is given

The probability of not winning is 1 - P(winning) = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4

----------------

Part (b)

P(losing) = 0.1 is given

The probability of not losing is 1 - P(losing) = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9

-----------------

Part (c)

The probability of winning is 0.6 and the probability of losing is 0.1

This adds to 0.6+0.1 = 0.7, which must mean 0.3 is the probability of drawing (since 0.7+0.3 = 1)

So the probability of not drawing is 1 - P(draw) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7, which is exactly the sum of the probabilities of winning and losing.