what should a firm’s goal be regarding the cash conversion cycle, holding other things constant? explain your answer.

The shear modulus is approximately 46 GPa.

The shear modulus which is also known as the modulus of rigidity is a material property that measures the ability of a material to resist shear deformation. It is denoted by G and typically measured in Pascals(Pa). It measures the ratio of shear stress to shear strain in a material.

The shear modulus is an important property in the study of material science and engineering.

If an isotropic material has Young's modulus of 120 GPa and a Poisson's ratio of 0.3, you can calculate its shear modulus using the following formula:

G = E / [2 * (1 + (ν))]

Here,

E is Young's modulus of the material

ν is the Poisson's ratio of the material

Plugging the values,

G = 120 GPa / [2 * (1 + 0.3)]

G = 120 GPa / 2.6

G ≈ 46.15 GPa

Know more about shear modulus here,

https://brainly.com/question/13261401

#SPJ11

Work function means the minimum energy required to remove an electron from a metal's surface.

Work function is a term used in the field of physics that refers to the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the surface of a metal.

When light or radiation is shone on the surface of a metal, some of the electrons in the metal absorb energy from the radiation and become excited.

If the energy of the absorbed radiation is greater than the work function of the metal, the excited electrons can escape from the surface of the metal and be emitted into the surrounding space. This process is called the photoelectric effect.

More on work function can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/12658742

#SPJ1

The heat required to raise the temperature of 5kg of water from 5°C to 35°C is 150 kcal.

To calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of 5kg of water from 5°C to 35°C in kcal, you can use the following terms and formula:
- Mass (m) = 5kg
- Initial temperature (T1) = 5°C
- Final temperature (T2) = 35°C
- Specific heat capacity of water (c) = 1 kcal/kg°C
- Heat (Q) = ?

The formula to calculate heat is:

Q = mc(T2 - T1)

Substitute the given values into the formula.
Q = (5kg) * (1 kcal/kg°C) * (35°C - 5°C)

Perform the calculations inside the parentheses.
Q = (5kg) * (1 kcal/kg°C) * (30°C)

Multiply the values together.
Q = 150 kcal

Learn more about heat:

https://brainly.com/question/934320

#SPJ11

the magnetic field along the axis at the centre of the solenoid is approximately 5.47 × 10⁻⁴ T.

The magnetic field along the axis at the centre of a solenoid can be calculated using the formula:

B = μ₀nI

Where B is the magnetic field, μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ T m/A), n is the number of turns per unit length (n = N/L), and I is the current.

In this case, the length of the solenoid is 99 cm, the radius is 3.14 cm, and the current is 3.05 A. So we can calculate the number of turns per unit length as:

n = N/L = 450/0.99 = 454.5 turns/m

Now we can substitute these values into the formula:

B = μ₀nI = (4π × 10⁻⁷ T m/A)(454.5 turns/m)(3.05 A) ≈ 5.47 × 10⁻⁴ T

Learn more about magnetic field here:

https://brainly.com/question/24397546

#SPJ11

The formula for pulse duration is the number of cycles in a pulse multiplied by the period so the correct option is (b).

This is because pulse duration is the amount of time it takes for one pulse to occur, and the period is the time it takes for one cycle to occur. Therefore, multiplying the number of cycles in a pulse by the period gives us the total time duration of the pulse. The other options, frequency (a), wavelength (c), and amplitude (d), are not directly related to pulse duration.

More on pulse: https://brainly.com/question/30036211

#SPJ11

The angle of refraction in the water is approximately 51.7 degrees. To calculate the angle of refraction in the water, we can use Snell's Law, which states that the ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction  equivalent to the ratio of the refraction indices of the two mediums.

sin(theta1)/sin(theta2) = index of refraction of air/index of refraction of water

Plugging in the given values, we get:

sin(75.0°)/sin(theta2) = 1/1.33

Rearranging and solving for the refraction angle, we get:

sin(theta2) = sin(75.0°) × 1.33

sin(theta2) = 1.225

Taking the inverse sine both sides of equation, we get:

refraction angle = sin^-1(1.225)

refraction angle ≈ 51.7°

Therefore, the angle of refraction in the water is approximately 51.7 degrees.

To know more about Snell's Law visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2273464

#SPJ11

Table 2's data may be used to compare the thermal conductivity of the two materials by comparing the time required for the temperature to drop by the same amount, 20 °C for both materials.

The thermal conductivity of the slower-cooling material is lower, while the thermal conductivity of the faster-cooling material is higher.

Based on the facts in Table 2, it is possible to conclude that material Y has a higher thermal conductivity than material X since it cools down faster (takes less time) than material X.

Find out more on thermal conductivity here: https://brainly.com/question/11213835

#SPJ1

The angular speed in rad/s is 120.5 rad/s. The angular displacement of the airplane propeller in 4.00 s is given by 482 rad. the linear speed is 241 m/s. the linear speed of a point 1.00 m from the end of the blade is 120.5 m/s.

The chord line of an airfoil section and the propeller's plane of rotation form what is known as the blade angle. Blade angle is an angular length measurement that is expressed in degrees. A propeller section's pitch, on the other hand, measures how far it will go in one revolution, measured in inches.

The following formula may be used to get the angular speed, :

ω = 2πf

We can convert the rotational speed from rpm to Hz as follows:

120.73 rad/s = 1150 rpm * (1 min/60 s) * (2 rad/1 rev)

The following formula may be used to get the angular displacement, :

θ = ωt

where t is the time taken.

θ = (120.73 rad/s) * (4.00 s) = 482.92 rad

The following formula may be used to determine the linear speed, v, of a point on the end of the blade:

v = rω

At the end of the blade, r = L/2 = 1.00 m

120.73 m/s = v = (1.00 m) * (120.73 rad/s)

To know more about displacement visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/11934397

#SPJ1

The wavelength of light emitted as the electronic state of a hydrogen atom transitions from the n = 8 to the n = 2 state is 389.6 nm.

To find the wavelength of light emitted as the electronic state of a hydrogen atom transitions from n = 8 to n = 2, we can use the Rydberg formula:

[tex]1/\lambda  = R_H \times (1/n_1^2 - 1/n_2^2)[/tex]

where λ is the wavelength, R_H is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen (approximately 1.097 x 10⁷ m⁻¹), n₁ is the initial energy level (n₁ = 2), and n₂ is the final energy level (n₂ = 8).

[tex]1/\lambda  = (1.097 \times 10^7 m^{-1}) \times (1/2^2 - 1/8^2)[/tex]
[tex]1/\lambda = (1.097 \times 10^7 \ m^{-1}) \times (1/4 - 1/64)[/tex]
[tex]1/\lambda = (1.097 \times 10^7 \ m^{-1}) \times (15/64)[/tex]

Now, calculate λ:

[tex]\lambda = 1 / [(1.097 x 10^7 \ m^{-1}) \times (15/64)][/tex]
λ = 3.896 x 10⁻⁷ m

Convert the wavelength from meters to nanometers:

λ = 3.896 x 10⁻⁷ m * (10⁹ nm/m)
λ = 389.6 nm

So, the wavelength of light emitted as the electronic state of a hydrogen atom transitions from the n = 8 to the n = 2 state is approximately 389.6 nm.

Learn more bout the Rydberg formula:

https://brainly.com/question/14649374

#SPJ11

Therefore, the magnitude of the flux through the given surface produced by the magnetic field is 0.1907 [tex]cm^2 * T.[/tex]

To find the magnetic flux through the given surface, we need to integrate the dot product of the magnetic field and the surface area vector over the surface.

The surface area vector is given by a unit vector in the z-direction, i.e., A = A_z = k^.

Thus, the magnetic flux through the surface is given by the surface integral:

Φ = ∫∫ B · dA

We can evaluate this integral using the divergence theorem:

Φ = ∫∫∫ (∇ · B) dV

the volume integral is taken over the region enclosed by the surface.

Since the magnetic field is given as a function of time, we need to evaluate the divergence of the field at each time:

∇ · B = (∂B_x/∂x) + (∂B_y/∂y) + (∂B_z/∂z)

= 0 + 0 + (∂B_z/∂z)

= -1.35

Substituting this into the volume integral and evaluating it over the region enclosed by the surface, we get:

Φ = -1.35 (3.75)

= -0.1907

However, since the magnetic flux is a scalar quantity, we need to take its magnitude:

|Φ| = 0.1907.

Learn more about magnitude visit: brainly.com/question/30337362

#SPJ4

(a) When Q is decreased by a factor of 10, the cell potential will increase by 0.0592 volts.

This is because the Nernst equation tells us that Ecell = E°cell - (RT/nF)lnQ, where E°cell is the standard cell potential, R is the gas constant, T is temperature in Kelvin, n is the number of electrons transferred in the reaction (v = 2 in this case), F is Faraday's constant, and lnQ is the natural logarithm of the reaction quotient. When Q is decreased by a factor of 10, lnQ becomes ln(1/10) = -2.303, and so the overall change in Ecell is (0.0592/2)*(-2.303) = 0.0676 volts.

(b) When Q is increased by a factor of 5, the cell potential will decrease by 0.0296 volts. Using the same Nernst equation, we can calculate the change in E cell as (0.0592/3)*(1.609) = 0.0296 volts.

Learn more about Kelvin here:

https://brainly.com/question/3349382

#SPJ11

The amount of the work does an elevator motor do to lift a 1800 kg elevator a height of 200 mm is 3531.6 Joules.

To calculate the work done by the elevator motor to lift a 1800 kg elevator a height of 200 mm, we need to use the formula:

Work = Force x Distance.

In this case, the force is equal to the weight of the elevator (mass x gravity), and the distance is the height it is lifted.

First, we need to convert 200 mm to meters:

200 mm = 0.2 m

Next, we calculate the weight of the elevator:

Weight = mass x gravity

Weight = 1800 kg x 9.81 m/s² (gravity)

Weight = 17658 N (Newtons)

Now we can calculate the work done:

Work = Force x Distance

Work = 17658 N x 0.2 m

Work = 3531.6 J (Joules)

So, the elevator motor does 3531.6 Joules of work to lift the 1800 kg elevator a height of 200 mm.

Learn more about work: https://brainly.com/question/31455969

#SPJ11

The correct option is A, which states that in a single slit diffraction experiment, increasing slit narrowness would result in increasing separation between adjacent diffraction minima.

Single slit diffraction is a phenomenon that occurs when light passes through a narrow slit and spreads out into a wider pattern of bright and dark fringes. The diffraction pattern is caused by the interference of light waves that pass through different parts of the slit and interfere constructively or destructively at different points in space.

The width of the slit and the wavelength of the light determine the diffraction pattern, with narrower slits and shorter wavelengths producing wider patterns. The pattern consists of a central bright fringe, surrounded by a series of alternating bright and dark fringes. Single slit diffraction is an important concept in physics and optics, and has applications in areas such as spectroscopy, microscopy, and astronomy.

To learn more about Single slit diffraction visit here:

brainly.com/question/28269867

#SPJ4

Complete Question:-

In a single slit diffraction experiment, if the slit is narrowed, the distances between adjacent diffraction minima ______.

a. grow farther apart. b. remain unchanged. c grow closer together.

The proportion of variance accounted for is 22.09%.

A correlation coefficient is a number between -1 and 1 that tells you the strength and direction of a relationship between variables.

In other words, it reflects how similar the measurements of two or more variables are across a dataset.

To find the proportion of variance accounted for, you'll need to square the correlation coefficient between x and y. In this case, the correlation coefficient is 0.47.

1: Square the correlation coefficient (0.47^2).
0.47 * 0.47 = 0.2209

2: Convert the result into a percentage.
0.2209 * 100 = 22.09%

To learn more about correlation coefficient, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/11811889

#SPJ11

Yes, the mass of the skater does affect the size/value of the kinetic and gravitational potential energy.

Kinetic energy is proportional to the square of the velocity of the skater, but the mass of the skater also plays a role in determining the kinetic energy. A skater with a larger mass will require more energy to reach a certain velocity than a skater with a smaller mass.

Similarly, gravitational potential energy is proportional to the mass of the skater and the height at which they are located. A skater with a larger mass will have a greater gravitational potential energy than a skater with a smaller mass, assuming they are at the same height.

In summary, the mass of the skater does have an impact on the size/value of both kinetic and gravitational potential energy.

To know more about kinetic energy refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/26472013#

SPJ11#

Yes, the mass of the skater does affect the size/value of the kinetic and gravitational potential energy.

Kinetic energy is the energy an object possesses due to its motion. The formula for kinetic energy is KE = 1/2 mv^2, where m is the mass of the object and v is the velocity. Therefore, the larger the mass of the skater, the more kinetic energy they will possess at a given velocity.

Gravitational potential energy is the energy an object possesses due to its position in a gravitational field. The formula for gravitational potential energy is PE = mgh, where m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height above a reference level. Therefore, the larger the mass of the skater, the more gravitational potential energy they will possess at a given height.

In conclusion, the mass of the skater does affect the size/value of the kinetic and gravitational potential energy. The larger the mass, the more energy the skater will possess at a given velocity or height.

For more such questions on Mass.

https://brainly.com/question/29053603#

#SPJ11

Increasing the mass of the pith balls and increasing the value of g both result in an increase in the force of gravity acting on the system.

In the case of increasing the mass of the pith balls, the gravitational force of attraction between the two balls increases because the mass is directly proportional to the gravitational force. As a result, the balls will be pulled towards each other with a greater force.

Similarly, increasing the value of g will also increase the force of attraction between the pith balls. This is because the force of gravity is directly proportional to the value of g. If g is increased, the gravitational force of attraction between the two balls will also increase.

Therefore, both increasing the mass of the pith balls and increasing the value of g will result in a greater force of attraction between the balls. This relationship can be observed in experiments involving pith balls and can be used to investigate various properties related to gravity and electrostatics.

learn more about force of gravity here:

https://brainly.com/question/29236134

#SPJ11

A capacitor of approximately 145.5 μF should be placed in parallel with the motor to achieve a power factor of 1. we need to determine the size of the capacitor that must be placed in parallel with the motor for a power factor of 1. The given information is a 120 Veff motor drawing 1.5 kVA at a lagging power factor of 0.85.

To determine the size of the capacitor that must be placed in parallel with the motor for a power factor of 1, we can use the formula:

Qc = P * tan(arccos(PF1) - arccos(PF2)) / (2 * pi * f * V^2)

Where Qc is the capacitance in Farads, P is the power in watts (1.5 kW in this case), PF1 is the initial lagging power factor (0.85 in this case), PF2 is the desired power factor (1 in this case), f is the frequency (assumed to be 60 Hz), and V is the voltage (120 V in this case).

Plugging in the values, we get:

Qc = 1500 * tan(arccos(0.85) - arccos(1)) / (2 * pi * 60 * 120^2)

Qc = 145.5 μF

Therefore, the size of the capacitor that must be placed in parallel with the motor for a power factor of 1 is 145.5 μF.

Learn more about capacitor here:

https://brainly.com/question/17176550

#SPJ11

The heat flow through the wall in a 17.5 h period is 7.39 MJ.

Given

Length of brick wall = 2.7m

Breadth of brick wall= 11m

Thermal conductivity= 0.75W/m-°C

Heat flows= 17.5h

Inside Temperature= 30°

Outside Temperature= 7°C

To Find

The heat flow through the wall

Solution

The heat flow through the wall can be calculated using the formula:

Q = (kAΔT)t/d

where

k = thermal conductivity of the wall

A = area of the wall

ΔT = temperature difference across the wall

t = time period

d = thickness of the wall

We are given:

k = 0.75 W/m-°C

A = 2.7 m x 11 m = 29.7 m^2

ΔT = (30°C - 7°C) = 23°C

t = 17.5 h = 63,000 s (convert to seconds)

d = 7 cm = 0.07 m (convert to meters)

Substituting the given values, we get:

Q = (0.75 W/m-°C) x (29.7 m^2) x (23°C) x (63,000 s) / (0.07 m)

Simplifying the expression, we get:

Q = 7,387,714 J = 7.39 MJ (to 2 significant figures)

Therefore, the heat flow through the wall in a 17.5 h period is 7.39 MJ.

Learn more about heat here:

brainly.com/question/15170783

If you need to change a table's structure in ways that are beyond the capabilities of your DBMS, you may need to manually modify the table's schema or use third-party tools to assist in the process.

Manual modification of the schema may involve exporting the table's data, making the necessary changes to the table structure in a text editor or IDE, and then importing the data back into the modified table.

Third-party tools, such as database schema migration tools, can automate much of this process and simplify the task of modifying complex table structures.

These tools can help you to generate SQL scripts to modify the table schema, apply the changes to the database, and even manage versioning and rollback in case of errors.

However, it is important to test any schema changes thoroughly before applying them to a production database to avoid data loss or other issues.

To know more about database schema click on below link:

https://brainly.com/question/9957694#

#SPJ11

Control rods are essential components in nuclear power plants, as they help regulate the rate of fission reactions and maintain a stable energy output. The primary reason nuclear plants cannot go from full power to zero power instantly is "control rods can only stop new fission reactions; they cannot stop existing reactions". The correct option is A.

In a nuclear power plant, fission reactions occur when atoms of nuclear fuel, such as uranium-235, are split, releasing a significant amount of energy. Control rods are made of materials that can absorb neutrons, such as boron or cadmium. When they are inserted into the reactor core, they capture neutrons, which in turn reduces the number of neutrons available to cause further fission reactions.

While control rods effectively limit new fission reactions, they cannot halt the decay of radioactive isotopes produced during fission. These isotopes continue to generate heat even after fission has stopped, a phenomenon known as decay heat. This heat needs to be managed carefully to prevent overheating and potential damage to the reactor.

As a result, nuclear plants must follow a carefully designed shutdown procedure, gradually reducing power output while ensuring the safety and proper cooling of the reactor core. This process takes time and cannot be accomplished instantaneously.

to know more about nuclear power plants refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/4246037#

#SPJ11

The approximate magnetic field, if the solenoid carries a current of 20.0 A and has 220.0 turns per meter of the solenoid's length, would be 0.55T.

If we double the number of turns per meter to 440.0 turns/m, then the magnetic field will double as well.

The current required to produce a magnetic field of 0.000600 T within a similar solenoid that has 2500.0 turns distributed uniformly over the solenoids length of 1.500m would be 2.27A

To calculate the magnetic field within a solenoid of arbitrary length, we use the formula

[tex]B = \mu nl[/tex]

where B is the magnetic field, μ is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length (in this case, 220.0 turns/m), and I is the current flowing through the solenoid (20.0 A).

At some point not close to its ends, we can assume that the magnetic field is uniform and use this formula.
Therefore,

[tex]B = \mu nI \\B= (4\pi \times 10^{-7} T\times m/A) \times (220.0 \:turns/m) \times (20.0 A) \\B= 0.55 T.[/tex]

If we double the number of turns per meter to 440.0 turns/m, then the magnetic field will double as well.

This is because the magnetic field is directly proportional to the number of turns per unit length.
To verify this, we can recalculate the magnetic field with the new value of n:

[tex]B = \mu nI \\B= (4\pi \times 10^{-7} T\times m/A) \times (440.0 \:turns/m) \times (20.0 \:A) \\B= 1.1 T[/tex]

which is double the original value.

To find the current required to produce a magnetic field of 0.000600 T within a solenoid with 2500.0 turns distributed uniformly over its length of 1.500m, we use the formula

[tex]I = B/(\mu n)[/tex]
First, we need to calculate n:

[tex]B = \mu nI \\B= (4\pi \times 10^{-7} T\times m/A) \times (440.0 \:turns/m) \times (20.0 A) \\B= 1.1 \:T[/tex]
Then, we can plug in the values:

[tex]I = 0.000600 T / (4\pi \times 10^{-7} \:T\time m/A) \times (1666.7 \:turns/m)\\I= 2.27 A.[/tex]

Therefore, the current required is 2.27 A.

For more such questions on Solenoid

https://brainly.com/question/1873362

#SPJ11

Physically, this conclusion means that there is more power flowing in the incident wave than in the reflected wave.

To show that |R1|<1 using the load reflection coefficient formula,

we can start by noting that the magnitude of r1 is given by |r1| = |Z1-Z0|/|Z1+Z0|.

Since Z1 and Z0 are both positive real numbers, we can simplify this expression by taking the real part of Z1-Z0 and Z1+Z0 separately:

|r1| = |Re(Z1) - Re(Z0)| / |Re(Z1) + Re(Z0)|

Now, since the real part of Z1 is positive and the real part of Z0 is positive, we know that Re(Z1) - Re(Z0) is also positive.

Therefore, the numerator of the fraction is positive.

On the other hand, the denominator is always larger than the numerator because it contains both positive real numbers.

This means that the magnitude of r1 is always less than 1, i.e. |r1|<1.

Physically, this conclusion means that there is more power flowing in the incident wave than in the reflected wave.

The load impedance is not perfectly matched to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line, which causes some of the incident power to be reflected back towards the source.

However, because |R1|<1, the reflected wave has a lower magnitude than the incident wave, indicating that less power is being reflected than transmitted.

In other words, most of the power is still being carried by the incident wave, which is desirable in most practical applications.

For more information on reflection and incident power refer to https://brainly.com/question/29788343

#SPJ11

The result will be the weight of the astronaut on the planet's surface, expressed in the appropriate units (such as newtons, N).

What is Mass?

Mass is a fundamental property of matter that represents the amount of matter contained in an object. It is a measure of the inertia of an object, which is the resistance of an object to changes in its motion. Mass is typically measured in kilograms (kg) or other appropriate units in the metric system.

where G is the gravitational constant, M_planet is the mass of the planet, and R_planet is the radius of the planet. Since the diameter is given, we can calculate the radius as half of the diameter:

R_planet = d/2

Now we can plug in the given values to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g) at the planet's surface.

G = 6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex] [tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex]) (gravitational constant)

M_planet = m_craft (mass of landing craft)

R_planet = d/2 (radius of planet)

Substituting the values:

(6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex][tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex])) * (12,500 kg) / [tex](4.80×10^6 m) ^{2}[/tex]

Now we can calculate the weight (w) of the astronaut by multiplying the mass of the astronaut (m) with the calculated acceleration due to gravity (g).

w = m * g

= 85.6 kg * [(6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex] [tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex])) * (12,500 kg) / [tex](4.80×10^6 m) ^{2}[/tex]]

Learn more about Mass from the given link

https://brainly.com/question/86444

#SPJ1

The result will be the weight of the astronaut on the planet's surface, expressed in the appropriate units (such as newtons, N).

What is Mass?

Mass is a fundamental property of matter that represents the amount of matter contained in an object. It is a measure of the inertia of an object, which is the resistance of an object to changes in its motion. Mass is typically measured in kilograms (kg) or other appropriate units in the metric system.

where G is the gravitational constant, M_planet is the mass of the planet, and R_planet is the radius of the planet. Since the diameter is given, we can calculate the radius as half of the diameter:

R_planet = d/2

Now we can plug in the given values to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g) at the planet's surface.

G = 6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex] [tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex]) (gravitational constant)

M_planet = m_craft (mass of landing craft)

R_planet = d/2 (radius of planet)

Substituting the values:

(6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex][tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex])) * (12,500 kg) / [tex](4.80×10^6 m) ^{2}[/tex]

Now we can calculate the weight (w) of the astronaut by multiplying the mass of the astronaut (m) with the calculated acceleration due to gravity (g).

w = m * g

= 85.6 kg * [(6.67430 × [tex]10^{-11}[/tex] [tex]m^{3}[/tex]/(kg·[tex]s^{2}[/tex])) * (12,500 kg) / [tex](4.80×10^6 m) ^{2}[/tex]]

Learn more about Mass from the given link

https://brainly.com/question/86444

#SPJ1

The force of gravity does cause both the projectile and the target to accelerate, but in a two-dimensional collision, the direction of the acceleration is not relevant. What matters is the conservation of momentum, which holds true in this situation.

The momentum of the projectile before the collision is equal to the momentum of the projectile and target after the collision. This is because the force of gravity acting on the projectile is equal and opposite to the force of gravity acting on the target, resulting in a net zero external force.

Therefore, the conservation of momentum still applies, even though both objects are being accelerated by the force of gravity.

To know more about momentum: https://brainly.com/question/1042017

#SPJ11

The resistor has a resistance of about 45 Ohms.

These equations are a special case of Ohm's law. Here, the letters R, V, and I stand for resistance, potential difference, and current, respectively. According to this, power is inversely proportional to the resistance provided by the conductor and directly proportional to the square of the potential difference.

P = V²/R

where P is the power, V is the potential difference, and R is the resistance.

Substituting the given values, we have:

20 W = (30 V)²/R

Solving for R, we get:

R = (30 V)²/20 W

R = 45 Ohms

To know more about resistance visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/30799966

#SPJ1

The resistor has a resistance of about 45 Ohms.

These equations are a special case of Ohm's law. Here, the letters R, V, and I stand for resistance, potential difference, and current, respectively. According to this, power is inversely proportional to the resistance provided by the conductor and directly proportional to the square of the potential difference.

P = V²/R

where P is the power, V is the potential difference, and R is the resistance.

Substituting the given values, we have:

20 W = (30 V)²/R

Solving for R, we get:

R = (30 V)²/20 W

R = 45 Ohms

To know more about resistance visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/30799966

#SPJ1

The length of the blades needed to capture 200 kW of wind power during the summer is approximately 38.06 meters (twice the blade radius).

What is Densty?

Density is a physical property of matter that describes the amount of mass per unit of volume. It is defined as the ratio of the mass of an object to its volume, and is typically expressed in units of grams per cubic centimeter (g/cm³) or kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³).

To compute the power density of the wind, we can use the formula:

Power Density = 1/2 x air density x swept area x wind speed^3

where air density is 1.225 kg/[tex]m^{3}[/tex], swept area is pi x [tex](blade radius)^{2}[/tex], and wind speed is 15 m/s.

For winter:

Power Density = 1/2 x 1.225 kg/[tex]m^{3}[/tex] x (pi x (blade radius)^2) x [tex](15 m/s)^{3}[/tex]

Power Density = 682.97 W/[tex]m^{2}[/tex]

For summer:

Power Density = 1/2 x 1.225 kg/[tex]m^{3}[/tex] x (pi x[tex](blade radius)^{2}[/tex]) x [tex](15 m/s)^{3}[/tex]

Power Density = 682.97 W/[tex]m^{2}[/tex]

Learn more about Density from the given link

https://brainly.com/question/26364788

#SPJ1

The materials that will respond to magnetic damping at a recycling centre to detect and separate certain materials are ferromagnetic conductors. So the answer is i.

Ferromagnetic conductors are materials that are strongly attracted to a magnet and can become magnetized themselves. These include iron, nickel, and cobalt. In terms of magnetic damping, these materials would respond very strongly to this method as they have a high magnetic susceptibility. This means that the magnetic damping system would be able to easily detect and separate these materials from other materials in the recycling centre. Nonferromagnetic conductors, on the other hand, are materials that conduct electricity but are not attracted to magnets. These include copper, aluminium, and gold. While they do not have a high magnetic susceptibility like ferromagnetic conductors, they can still be separated using magnetic damping. This is because the damping system can induce a small amount of magnetism in these materials, allowing them to be detected and separated from other materials.

Finally, insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity or heat. These include materials such as rubber, plastic, and glass. Insulators are not responsive to magnetic damping as they do not have any magnetic properties that can be induced by the damping system. As a result, they would not be separated using this method in a recycling centre.

To know more about Ferromagnetic Conductors visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31380790

#SPJ11

If you drive your car with an average velocity of 65 miles/hour, it will take you approximately 7.69 hours (or 7 hours and 41 minutes) to make a trip of 500 miles.

To determine how long it will take you to make a trip of 500 miles with an average velocity of 65 miles/hour, you can use the formula:
Time = Distance / Velocity
In this case, the distance is 500 miles and the average velocity is 65 miles/hour.
Time = 500 miles / 65 miles/hour
Time ≈ 7.69 hours
It will take you approximately 7.69 hours to complete the 500-mile trip at an average velocity of 65 miles/hour.

To learn more about velocity click here https://brainly.com/question/17127206

#SPJ11

Answer B. In an electromagnetic (EM) wave, the electric field vector (E-vector) and magnetic field vector (B-vector) are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave propagation.

In this case, the EM wave is traveling east, and the E-vector points straight up (away from the center of the Earth).

The direction of the B-vector of an EM wave is always perpendicular to the direction of the E-vector and to the direction of wave propagation. Therefore, in this scenario, the B-vector would be oriented to the north or south.

.
Thus, the B-vector must point in the North direction.

Learn more about vector here:

https://brainly.com/question/29740341

#SPJ11

To determine the theoretical expected maximum voltage across the capacitor, we need to consider the voltage supply and the capacitance value. The maximum voltage across a capacitor can be calculated using the formula Vmax = Q max/C, where Q max is the maximum charge that the capacitor can hold and C is the capacitance value.

Assuming that the voltage supply is constant and there is no resistance in the circuit, the theoretical expected maximum voltage across the capacitor can be calculated as follows:
Vmax = Q max/C
Where Q max = CV, where C is the capacitance value and V is the maximum voltage supply.

Therefore, the theoretical expected maximum voltage across the capacitor can be calculated as Vmax = (C x V)/C, which simplifies to Vmax = V.
In other words, the theoretical expected maximum voltage across the capacitor is equal to the maximum voltage supply.

To know more about  maximum voltage:

https://brainly.com/question/29586777

#SPJ11