LAST ATTEMPT IM MARKING AS BRAINLIEST!! (Draw a dilation of the figure using the given scale factor )

Answer:

i think that it would be 0

Answer:that is 0.01541

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c. $324

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution is,

A) 83/400= 0,2075

B) 100/400=0,25

C) 42/400= 0,105

D) 42/100= 0,42

E) The special training program was effective.

Division can be stated as the process of splitting a number or an amount into equal parts. Division is one of the four basic operations of arithmetic, the ways that numbers are combined to make new numbers. The other operations are addition, subtraction, and multiplication.

here, we have,

Explanation:

Total population= 400 salespeople

Received a bonus last year= 83 salespeople

Attended a special sales training program= 100 salespeople

Both attended sales training and received a bonus= 42 salespeople

a) You need to calculate the number of salespeople that receive a bonus over total population

83/400= 0,2075 The proportion of salespeople that receive a bonus is 0,2075

b) You need to calculate the number of salespeople that attended a special program over total population

100/400= 0,25 The proportion of salespeople that attended a special program is 0,35

c) 42/400= 0,105  The proportion of salespeople that receive a bonus and attended a special program is  0,105

d) You need to calculate the proportion of people that having attended received a bonus.

42/100= 0,42  The proportion of salespeople that receive a bonus having attended a special program is  0,42

e) The special training program was effective. The proportion of people that receive a bonus over the total population that didn't attend the program (41/300=0,14) is inferior to the proportion of salespeople that attend the program and receive a bonus. Meaning that there are more chances of receiving a bonus taking a training program.

To learn more on division click:

brainly.com/question/21416852

#SPJ7

Complete question:

A company employs 400 salespeople. Of these, 83 received a bonus last year, 100 attended a special sales training program at the beginning of last year, and 42 both attended the special sales training program and received a bonus. (Note: the bonus was based totally on sales performance.) a) What proportion of the 400 salespeople received a bonus last year? b) What proportion of the 400 salespeople attended the special sales training program at the beginning of last year? c) What proportion of the 400 salespeople both attended the special sales training program and received a bonus? d) What proportion of the salespeople who attended the special sales training program received a bonus? e) Based on your answers to parts a and d, does the special sales training program seem to have been effective? Explain your answer.

Answer:

I've done alot of calculations on this but I cant get a definite answer I hope you got it I'm sorry I couldn't help you I tried but only got into a dead end

Answer:

39.55

Step-by-step explanation:

24.99+15=39.55

That is how you get your answer :)

Answer:

1.89

Step-by-step explanation:

.15 x 24.55=1.89

The average distance is 300 yards

The ratio is given as:

Driver : 2-iron = 5 : 4

When the iron driver is 240 yards, we have:

Driver : 240 = 5 : 4

Express as fraction

Driver/240 = 5/4

Multiply both sides by 240

Driver= 300

Hence, the average distance is 300 yards

Read more about ratio at:

https://brainly.com/question/2328454

#SPJ1

Answer:

C (-3 + 5i) (-3 + 5i) = -16-30i

Step-by-step explanation:

EDGENUNITY

Answer: 2/5 Step-by-step explanation: The easiest approach is to realize that one hour is 3 times longer than 20 minutes. The longer the time, the more they will pave.  

Answer:

The value of B is 7.

B = 7

Answer:

B = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

first 100 + 47 + 10 + 100 = 257

second 200 + 50 = 250

257 - 250 = 7

The way to balance a firm's need to succeed and the need for not asking the workers for perfection is through the offering of training to workers, which allows them to notably improve their performances autonomously, without this being directly instigated by the company's directory.

That is, through the education of workers in the different areas of their jobs, the level of the same will be improved and better results will be obtained.

Learn more about perfectionism in https://brainly.com/question/7277328

Answer:

The answer is 4.2,

Hope that helped. x

Step-by-step explanation:

3 x 7 (3*7) = 21

21 divided by 5 = 4.2.

Answer:

4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

Using PEMDAS,

We know that to solve (3*7) divided by 5, we will need to solve what is in the parenthesis.

So, we need to figure out what is 7*3, which is 21.

This is what we have right now:

21 divided by 5

The next step is dividing,

In the end, the answer is 4.2, hope this helped!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is an isosceles triangle. You can tell because 2 of the sides are equal and the third is not equal to either of the other two.

x + x + 56 = 180                  Combine the left

2x + 56 = 180                      Subtract 56 from both sides.

2x = 180 - 56

2x = 124                               Divide by 2

x = 124/2

x = 62

Answer:

huh

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

During the 8-9 , Mr hare travel 40miles

For the time 9 onwards they travel concurrently,

Let x be the distance covered by both since they can only meet if they covered the sams distance,

x/50 = x/40 -1 ,where the 1 is the (8-9) 1 hr

x/40 - x/50 = 1

x = 200

Time take by Mr Hare = 200/ 40 = 5

from 8 add 5 hours will be 1

Note, i took this answer from an answer from another answer.

Answer:

The first step to dividing fractions is to find the reciprocal (reverse the numerator and denominator) of the second fraction. Next, multiply the two numerators. Then, multiply the two denominators. Finally, simplify the fractions if needed.

Answer:

Keep change flip!

Step-by-step explanation:

Example 1/2 divided 3/4

We simply keep 1/2 and then we flip the 3/4 which is now 4/3

now we also flip the division sign which its opposite is multiplying now its simply 1/2 x 4/3 and you get 4/6.  Hope this helps please mark brainliest!

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

They are equal acute triangles, are congurent. Your welcom

Answer:

If you're moving the vehicle to the right, shoulder check by moving your head 90° to the right. Turn your head 90° degrees in the direction you're moving the vehicle. And, if you're moving the vehicle to the left, you shoulder check to the left by turning your head 90° to the left.

1 km = 1000 m, so:

23,769 km = 23,769 · 1000 m = 23 769 m

Answer:

23769m

Step-by-step explanation:

Basicly, 3.769x 1000= 23769m

Please mark brainliest

Answer:

Perimeter = 12 1/2 in

Area = 9.375 in

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter:

(3 3/4) + (3 3/4) + (2 1/2) + (2 1/2) = 12 1/2

Area:

(3 3/4) * (2 1/2) = 9.375

Answer:

P = 12 1/2 in

A = 9 3/8 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

L = 3 3/4 in

W = 2 1/2 in

Area:

A = L × W

A = (3 3/4 in)(2 1/2 in)

A = 15/4 in × 5/2 in

A = 75/8 in²

A = 9 3/8 in²

Perimeter:

P = 2(L + W)

P = 2(3 3/4 in + 2 1/2 in)

P = 2(15/4 in + 5/2 in)

P = 2(15/4 in + 10/4 in)

P = 2(25/4 in)

P = 25/2 in

P = 12 1/2 in

It is evident from the problem statement that an overall price reduction of Nike air max shoes will lead to an increase in the demand for the shoe.

In Economics,  the relationship between price and demand is stated as follows "If all other factors remain equal, the higher the price of a good, the fewer people will demand that good. In other words, the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded and vice versa."

In all, the Law of Demand tells us that if more people want to buy something, given a limited supply, the price of that thing will be bid higher, also of the price of something is low the demand will be high.

learn more:

https://brainly.com/question/25585026

Answer:

18.6cm

Step-by-step explanation:

there is a theorem that states that the midsegment of a triangle (midpoint to midpoint, in this case X and Y) is half of the base (in this case BC)

when applied to the triangle shown:

XY= 1/2 BC

substitute to get

XY=1/2*6.4

XY=3.2

perimeter of BCYX

=XY+YC+CB+BX

=3.2+4+6.4+5

=18.6cm

hope this helps

Answer:

x = 20°

Step-by-step explanation:

OA = OB

so 140°+x°+x° = 180°

140+2x = 180

2x = 40

x = 20°

Step-by-step explanation:

321.5 is the correct answer

The tenths is the number after the decimal points always

EXAMPLES

3.4

4.2

You get the point.

Now to round you look at the second number if it is lower than 5 make it a zero

321.50 is equivalent to 321.5

So that's the answer: 321.5.

(If the thingy is bigger than five make the number left to it increase by one)

(If it's equal to five make the number increase, different places have different rules)

Using the BMI equation, it is found that weights between 139.4 and 195.2 pounds will keep his BMI between 20 and 28.

The BMI B, for a person of weight w(in pounds) and height h(in inches) is given by:

[tex]BMI = \frac{703w}{h^2}[/tex]

In this problem:

For a BMI of 20 inches, the weight is:

[tex]BMI = \frac{703w}{h^2}[/tex]

[tex]20 = \frac{703w}{70^2}[/tex]

[tex]w = \frac{20 \times 70^2}{703}[/tex]

[tex]w = 139.4[/tex]

For a BMI of 28 inches, the weight is:

[tex]BMI = \frac{703w}{h^2}[/tex]

[tex]28 = \frac{703w}{70^2}[/tex]

[tex]w = \frac{28 \times 70^2}{703}[/tex]

[tex]w = 195.2[/tex]

Weights between 139.4 and 195.2 pounds will keep his BMI between 20 and 28.

To learn more about the BMI, you can take a look at https://brainly.com/question/24457127

Answer:

$245,000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the intial cost = x

[tex]100\% + 36\% = 136\% = 1.36[/tex]

[tex]1.36x = 333200[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{333200}{1.36} [/tex]

[tex]x = 245000[/tex]

Using the negative binomial distribution, it is found that:

a) [tex]E(X) = 15[/tex]

b) [tex]Var(X) = 6.67[/tex]

c) [tex]P(X = 12) = 0.0883[/tex]

Negative binomial distribution:

It is the number of trials until q successes of a binomial variable, with p probability of success.

The expected value is:

[tex]E(X) = \frac{q}{p}[/tex]

The variance is:

[tex]Var(X) = \frac{pq}{(1 - p)^2}[/tex]

The probability mass function is:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{x+q-1,q-1}(1 - p)^xp^q[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

In this problem, the parameters are: [tex]q = 6, p = 0.4[/tex].

Item a:

[tex]E(X) = \frac{6}{0.4} = 15[/tex]

Item b:

[tex]Var(X) = \frac{6(0.4)}{(1 - 0.4)^2} = 6.67[/tex]

Item c:

[tex]P(X = 12) = C_{17,5}(0.6)^12(0.4)^6 = 0.0883[/tex]

To learn more about the negative binomial distribution, you can take a look at https://brainly.com/question/15246027

Answer:

it's for sure option (B) cuz it's represented in the form of a straight line which means it's linear!

hope helpful~

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

I thinks its the best answer

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the equation you must first find the gradient and also look for the points on the graph.

I see point ( 0, 2) and point (4, 1)

Hence first find the gradient before equation

the gradient = y2-y1/x2-x1

y2 = 1

y1 = 2

x2 = 4

X1 =0

if you put in the values it will look like

1-2/4-0

-1/4

the gradient = -1/4

So for the equation the formula is

remember m is the gradient

y - y1 = m ( x - x1 )

so put in the value from only one point so you can choose either (0,2 ) or (4,1 )

I will go with (4, 1)

y - y1 = m ( x - x1 )

y - 1 = m ( x - 4 )

y -1 = -1/4 ( x - 4)

4 ( y-1) = -1(x-4)

4y- 4 = -1x +4

4y - 4 -4 = -1x

4y -8= -1x

4y + 1x -8 = 0

this is the equation.

thanks and good luck.

Answer: 26 = 4x + 10 and Cheryl goes running four times per week.

Step-by-step explanation: Let x equal the number of times Cheryl runs. 26 minus 10 is 16. 16 divided by 4 is 4.