Answer:
Tundra
Explanation:
i belive its tundra babe
True. The statement "In terms of plant life, this biome is extremely high in diversity, but there are very few animals that live here" accurately describes a tropical rainforest biome.
What is tropical rainforest biome?Tropical rainforest biome is known for its high level of plant biodiversity and relatively low number of animal species compared to other biomes. Tropical rainforests are home to a wide variety of plant species, including trees, shrubs, and epiphytes, but the dense vegetation and high rainfall make it difficult for many animal species to establish themselves.
However, the few species that are able to survive in the rainforest typically have specialized adaptations that allow them to thrive in this unique environment.
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Rabbits in most areas have a brown coat. The arctic hare has a bright white coat in
winter. How does the arctic hare's white color help it survive?
Answer:
Indeed, rabbits, in most of the planet, tend to have their fur colored brown, copper or other similar shades. Now, in the Arctic regions, these animals do not have this color, but a white one, similar to the environment that surrounds them. This is so because these animals, for evolutionary reasons, have adapted their fur to the snowy environment that surrounds them in the Arctic, in order to avoid being detected by potential predators, protecting themselves and trying to ensure their survival.
Who wrote about the idea that if more people are born then die it can lead 1 point
to war, famine, and will slow population growth.*
-Hutton
-Lamarck
-Malthus
-Farmers/Breeders
PLEASE HELP !! ILL GIVE 40 POINTS ; PLUS BRAINLIEST !! DONT SKIP ANSWER.
5.) What is the process by which the egg is released called?
6.) When does ovulation occur?
Answer:
5.) What is the process by which the egg is released called?
A.) Ovulation
6.) When does ovulation occur?
A.) Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period.
-TheUnknownScientist
a. DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules, called ________which separate during mitosis.
b. After chromosomes condense, the __________ is the region where the identical DNA molecules are most tightly attached to each other.
c. During mitosis, microtubules attach to chromosome; at the ____________
d. Ir dividing cells, most Of the cell's growth Occurs during ___________
Answer:
a. sister chromatids
b. histone
c. metaphase plate
d. interphase (if not a choice, then prophase)
Certain prehistoric events led to the formation of oil. Which of the following was one of those events? A giant wind storms destroy forests. B glaciers melted at the north and south poles . C Life in the sea died and was buried under sediment. D heavy flooring soaked the earths crust.
Answer:
C oil is just dead animal remains
Explanation:
Starting with the European settlers, humans have introduced earthworms from Europe and Asia into North American forests. These introductions continue through the transport of soil that contains non-native earthworms, such as during construction and through the release of non-native earthworms used for fishing. The effects of non-native earthworms are especially large in forests that did not have any native earthworms. For example, forests of the Great Lakes region did not previously have earthworms until humans introduced them. When non-native earthworms are introduced, the thick layer of leaf litter disappears quickly, thereby altering biogeochemical cycles. You conduct an experiment to compare the nitrogen cycle in soils with and without non-native earthworms. Predict the results of your experiment.
Answer:
The soils with earthworms will show a faster rate of ammonification
Explanation:
Originally, the nitrogen released by organisms when they die (or excrete waste products) is organic nitrogen, e.i., amino acids and nitrogenous bases in DNA. Ammonification is the property that decomposer organisms have to mineralize organic nitrogen in order to produce inorganic nitrogen in the form of ammonium (NH4+). In agroecosystems, earthworm activity can increase the ammonification rate. For example, Lumbricus terrestris is an invasive earthworm (which is native to Europe) that has been shown to increase both ammonification and nitrification (nitrate production) rates in the soil of different ecosystems.
How do landfills impact groundwater? A. litter
B. Sharp metal and glass get in the soil.
C. Liquids leak into the ground.
D. Landfills do not impact groundwater.
Answer: c. Liquids leak into the ground
Explanation:
Organisms can adapt
A.to other organisms
B. To their physical surroundings
C. To selective breeding
D. Both a and b
Answer:
ta and b both
hope it will help you
Explanation:
b. to their physical surroundings
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Please me help fast!!
Answer: you can just press sumbit for plato
Explanation:
s
Andrew did a mutant screen with his favorite bacterium that he used for marine phage hunting. He identified three base-substitution mutations on the bacterial recA gene:
Mutant A: A base substitution occurred, which changed T to C, and consequentially abolished transcription of the recA gene.
Mutant B: A base substitution, which changed codon 2 from ACC to ACT, which did not change encoded amino acid.
Mutant C: A base substitution occurred, which changed codon 3 from TCA to a stop codon TGA.
Based on the above info, which of the mutants would still have functional RecA protein?
a. Mutant B
b. Mutant A
c. Mutant C
Answer:
a. Mutant B
Explanation:
This question is describing a kind of mutation called SUBSTITUTION MUTATION, in which one or more nucleotide base is replaced by another in a sequence. In this case, the base-substitution mutations occcurs in the bacterial recA gene sequence.
However, base substitutions can be grouped into three based on the different results it yields namely: missense mutation, nonsense mutation, silent mutation.
- In Mutant A: A base substitution occurred, which changed T to C, and consequentially abolished transcription of the recA gene. This is an example of missense mutation because it changes the sequence.
- In Mutant B: A base substitution, which changed codon 2 from ACC to ACT, which did not change encoded amino acid. This is an example of silent mutation because it does not alter the sequence of the gene.
- In Mutant C: A base substitution occurred, which changed codon 3 from TCA to a stop codon TGA. This is an example of nonsense mutation because it leads to a STOP CODON.
According to the question, MUTANT B would still have functional RecA protein because it doesn't change the encoded amino acid sequence, which will still lead to the production of the RecA protein.
help its due this Wednesday
Answer:
first food chain:
The Producer: the trees
The Primary Consumers: elephants
The Secondary Consumers: the cheetah
The Scavengers: the termites
The Decomposers or Detritivores: mushrooms
second food chain
The Producer: grass
The Primary Consumers: zebras
The Secondary Consumers: the hyena
The Scavengers: the vultures
The Decomposers or Detritivores: microorganisms
the food web:
The Producers - the trees and grass.
The Primary Consumers – the zebras and elephants.
The Secondary Consumers – the cheetah, hyena.
The Scavengers – the termites, vultures
The Decomposers or Detritivores – mushrooms microorganisms.
If the amount of primary Consumers increases, the number of producers would decrease and the number of other consumers would increase, but after a short time their number would also decrease and it causes immigrations.
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When the gene encoding a certain cytoskeleton protein is deleted, the resulting mutant cells round up and do not form their normal appendages. These mutants can be rescued when a gene encoding an N-terminal green fluorescent protein (GFP) fusion of the protein is expressed, but not when a gene encoding a C-terminal GFP fusion is expressed. Which fusion protein is appropriate to use in studying cellular localization and activity
Answer: N-terminal green fluorescent protein (GFP)
Explanation:
Protein synthesis takes place in ribosomes located in the cell cytoplasm, in which amino acids are transported by transfer RNA corresponding to each amino acid to the messenger RNA where they bind in the appropriate position to form new proteins. The messenger RNA has a sequence of nucleotides that are translated into protein, as each codon (set of three amino acids) codes for one amino acid.
Genes are the storage units of genetic information, so they are segments of DNA that contain the information on how the cells of the organism should function. Each gene codes for a protein, so if a gene is damaged or absent, the protein will not be obtained. In this case, mutant cells with a deleted gene, will round up and wont form their normal appendages. This mutation can be rescued or repaired with a gene that encodes an N-terminal green fluorescent protein (GFP) fusion of the protein. The N-terminal end is the amino-terminal end and it refers to the end of a protein that ends with an amino acid that has a free amino group. The C-terminus or carboxyl-terminus is the end of a protein that ends in a carboxyl group. The convention for writing peptides is to place the C-terminal end to the right and write the sequence from the N- to the C-terminal end. So, when an N-terminal green fluorescent protein (GFP) fusion of the protein is expressed, the gene will produce the protein with a GFP tag.
GFP is Green Fluorescent Protein, and it is a protein produced by the jellyfish Aequorea victoria that emits bioluminescence in the green region of the visible spectrum. When a gene is fused to another gene (at either the N- or C-terminus, although in this case it is the N-terminus), the entire messenger RNA is translated together as if it were a single fused protein. Thereby, since the protein will be produce with a GFP tag, it can be seen under the microscope and it will be apropiate to use in studying cellular localization and activity.
There are some considerations that this problem does not question, such as that there must be a start codon for protein synthesis and a stop codon, and this stop codon must not be in the middle of the gene or between the gene and the GFP tag.
At the end of Meiosis II, each daughter cell has 23 single-stranded chromosomes.
True
OR
False
Answer:
y the end of meiosis, the resulting reproductive cells, or gametes, each have 23 genetically unique chromosomes. ... Each daughter cell is haploid, because it has half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell.
Explanation:
30 chromosomes
Each daughter cell will have 30 chromosomes. At the end of meiosis II, each cell (i.e., gamete) would have half the original number of chromosomes, that is, 15 chromosomes. 2.
From a diploid germ cell 2n =24 double stranded chromosomes, meiosis will produce four gamete haploid cells n =12 single stranded chromosomes.
Meiosis produces four with half because double stranded chromosomes represents DNA replication. Twice as much DNA as a diploid cell needs.
From a diploid germ cell 2n =24 double stranded chromosomes, mitosis will produce two diploid daughter cells 2n =24 single stranded chromosomes for the same reason.
DNA replication doubles the genome before cell division. Sister chromatids of double stranded chromosomes represent the replicated DNA. During cell division, sister chromatids of double stranded chromosomes are separated into different cells.
Meiosis has two stages, the first separating homologous pairs of double stranded chromosomes, and then the second stage separating sister chromatids into four haploid (n) gametes.
A test tube is filled with water and a green plant called Elodea. When the plant is exposed to sunlight, it begins to produce bubbles. What is the most likely conclusion for the identity of the gas in the bubbles? Explain.
Answer:
The correct answer is - oxygen.
Explanation:
The experiment of a test tube and elodea plant in which a plant of elodea is placed in a test tube filled with water and exposed to the sunlight and one is placed in the dark. The plant that is exposed to the sunlight starts forming a gas that can be seen as bubbles in the test tube.
This experiment shows the process of photosynthesis that converts sunlight into glucose with the help of carbon dioxide and water and produces oxygen as a byproduct that releases from the plants.
Thus, the gas that forms in the test tube in the form of bubble is oxygen which is released in the process of photosynthesis.
m/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSf1siktOoZRkggNo-AzHPw62091WglmEyyJt30t8yy3LbzpVQ/viewform
15. When two similar unicellular organisms fuse and exchange nuclear materials,
it is known as
O A. Haploidy
B. Conjugation
O .
C. Meiosis
D. Nuclear growth
The digestive system of most birds includes a structure called the gizzard. The
gizzard crushes and grinds food, often with the help of small stones that the bird
has swallowed.
Which of the following structures in the human digestive system has a function most
similar to that of a bird's gizzard?
F esophagus
G large intestine
H small intestine
J teeth
Answer:
the small intestine
Explanation:
the small intestine breaks down food and export it to the large into the large intestine.
the large intestine converts the food into turd aka poop.
Cell cycle is divided into two basic phases. What are they??
take 50 points
What is the correct equation for the breakdown of ozone? please answer quick
Answer: This electricity converts the oxygen molecule to ozone. Our equation is as follows: 3O2 + energy = 2O3.
The correct equation for the breakdown of ozone can typically occur in a series of two steps known as the destruction of ozone. It is illustrated thus;
Cl + O3 ⇒ ClO + O2ClO + O ⇒ Cl + O2The net reaction of the above process is the reaction of an oxygen atom with an ozone particle to form two molecules of oxygen.
The catalyst in this reaction is chlorine because it undergoes changes as the process continues while ozone is removed in the process. In the presence of sunlight, atomic oxygen is formed.
This entire process is referred to as the destruction of ozone.
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Answer:
The correct answers are:
1. A. eukaryote 2. B prokaryote 3. A. animals 4. B bacteria
Explanation:
The cell illustrated in A is a eukaryotic cell as it has a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles. The nucleus contains chromatin in the denser area in the center of the nucleus called the nucleolus. An example of this type of cell is animals or plants.
The other cell is a prokaryotic cell as it has no cell organelle or true nucleus. It has a denser area in cell plasm called nucleoid that has chromosome present. The example of these cells are bacteria or archeae.
Where do most transform boundaries occur?
Answer:
QUESTION:
Where do most transform boundaries occur?
ANSWER:
Transform Plate Boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are found in the ocean basin and connect offsets in the mid-ocean ridges.
Explanation:
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• 1. What is the difference between a gamete and a zygote?
• 2. Are gametes haploid or diploid? Are zygotes haploid or diploid?
• 3. What occurs at fertilization?
• 4. Define diploid and haploid.
• 5. What characterizes sexual reproduction?
• 6. What characterizes asexual reproduction?
• 7. What type of reproduction occurs in prokaryotes?
• 8. What is somatic tissue? What is germ-line tissue?
• 9. What do somatic cell lines and germ-cell producing cell lines have in common? What makes them different?
• 10. What happens in each stage of Meiosis I and Meiosis I1?
• 11. How does each stage of Meiosis compare to Mitosis?
• 12. Describe three ways that meiosis contributes to genetic diversity in a species?
Answer:
Explanation:
A gamete is a haploid reproductive cell that fuses with another gamete of opposite strain to form a diploid
zygote.
A zygote is a cell formed by the fusion of the male and female gamete before it undergoes division.
gametes are haploid while a zygote is diploid.
There is exchange of genetic material during sexual reproduction and fusion of gametes. Meiosis is also involved.
The opposite occurs in asexual reproduction and mitosis is involved instead.
Asexual reproduction is common in prokaryotes eg bacteria.
HELP ME PLEASE ? Helppppppppppp
A particular species of bacteria has a "a generation time" of 20 minutes. That is, every 20 minutes a single bacterium completes prokaryotic fission -- one bacterium is now two bacterial cells. This morning at 6:00 a.m. you made a sandwich and packed your lunchbox. What you were not aware of was that there were 10 bacteria cells of this species on the dollop of mayonnaise that you spread across your bread. At 12:00 p.m. (no on) You sit down and eat your entire sandwich! How many bacteria cells did you have for lunch? (Hint: use the formula 2axb x C = numbers of cells, where "a" - number of times per hour the bacteria reproduces, "5" the number of hours the bacteria had to reproduce, and "C" = the number of bacteria at the start).
Answer:
Number of bacteria cells = 2621440 cells
Explanation:
The generation time of a bacteria specie is the time it takes for a population of bacteria to double in number. The generation time for most common bacteria is quite short, about 20 minutes to 1 hour.
Bacteria reproduce asexually by binary fission, in which the parent cell divides into two to produce two identical daughter cells.
In the given question, the generation time of the bacterial species is 20 minutes.
The time that have passed from between the time the sandwich was packed at 6:00 am to lunch time by 12:00 pm is 6 hours.
Using the given formula in the hint: number of cells = 2^(ab) × C
Where a = number of times per hour the bacteria reproduces; b = number of hours; C = number of bacteria at the start
a = 60 minutes/ 20 minutes = 3; b = 6; C = 10
Number of cells = 2^(3 × 6) × 10
Number of cells = 2621440 cells
The technology time for the maximum not unusual place bacteria is pretty short, approximately 20 mins to one hour. The number of bacteria cells did have for lunch =2621440 cells.
Bacteria reproduce via way of means of binary fission, wherein the discern molecular divides into a time of the bacterial species is 20 mins.The time which has handed from among the time the sandwich became packed at 6:00 am to lunchtime via way of means of 12:00 pm is 6 hours.Using the given formulation withinside the hint: range of cells =2^ (ab)×C.Where a = range of instances in step with hour the reproduces; b = nu of hours; C = number of bacteria on the start.a = 60 mins/ 20 mins = 3; b = 6; C =10.The number of bacteria cells did have for lunch =2621440 cells.What is bacterial cel?Bacterial cells are exceptional from plant and animal cells. Bacteria are prokaryotes, because of this that they haven't any nucleus. A bacterial includes Capsule.
Thus it is clearly explained above that the number of bacteria cells did have for lunch =2621440 cells.
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Describe the characteristics of the keratinocyte membrane that restrict water movement across the membrane. If isolated keratinocytes are placed in a hypotonic solution for 24 hours, explain why there are likely to be far fewer cells at the end of this time than there were at the start.
Answer:
It has four layers and attach with each other with desmosome.
Explanation:
The keratinocytes are arranged in four different layers which are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and stratum corneum. These cells are attached with desmosome which is a membrane protein. The presence of these four layers made a barrier against damage done by heat, UV radiation, water loss, pathogens etc. There are fewer cells at the end of the time as compared to the start because may be of the water pressure on the membrane or these cells for a long time.
What is the importance of mitosis for unicellular organisms?
A) asexual reproduction
B) sexual reproduction
C) repair of damaged tissue
D) growth
Answer:
A) asexual reproduction
Explanation:
Mitosis plays an important part in the life cycle of most living things, though to varying extents. In unicellular organisms such as bacteria, mitosis is a type of asexual reproduction, making identical copies of a single cell. In multicellular organisms, mitosis produces more cells for growth and repair.
Answer:
hello again
Explanation:
motosis play an important
Which can be used to prevent initial entry of bacteria into the body?
Answer:
safeguard
Explanation:
safeguard sabon na skalam
what name is given to an enzyme which catalyses' the breakdown of proteins?
Answer:
Proteases
Explanation:
Pro - protein
eases - enzyme
What is the function of the raphe in diatoms?
a.
defense
b.
photosynthesis
c.
capturing food
d.
locomotion
Answer:
Locomotion
Explanation:
I am not sure but it will be helpful. Thank You !!!
what type of organism is Eospirifer?
Answer:
Its a fossil that is in the section of Rhynchonellata