Identification of the right match between the type of lipid and foods that contain lots of fat is A. Saturated fat/meat.
What is dietary fat?Fat is a hydrophobic organic substance that is poorly soluble in water, but soluble in organic solvents such as chloroform, ether, and benzene.
The main function of fat for the body is as an energy material and stores the most energy in the body. Healthy fats have other functions in the body and it takes an adequate amount of fat in the diet for good health. One of the foods that contain a lot of fat is meat.
If the consumption of saturated fat is above 10% of total energy, there is a risk of increasing LDL levels which play a role in carrying cholesterol to the coronary arteries.
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What type of data collection might be best to estimate whether a new medicine is more effective in curing the common cold than aspirin
Experiment is the type of data collection which is best to estimate whether a new medicine is more effective in curing the common cold than aspirin.
Aspirin, also known as acetylsalicylic acid, is a nonsteroidalanti-inflammatory medicine used to reduce pain, fever, and/ or inflammation, and as an antithrombotic. Specific seditious conditions which aspirin is used to treat include Kawasaki complaint, pericarditis, and rheumatic fever.
Experiment plays numerous places in wisdom. One of its important places is to test propositions and to give the base for scientific knowledge. It can also call for a new proposition, either by showing that an accepted proposition is incorrect, or by flaunting a new miracle that's in need of explanation.
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which goal is the nurse trying to achieve when placing a client with severe burns on a circulating air be
Preventing pressure on peripheral blood vessels is the goal that nurse is trying to achieve.
Avoid putting pressure on peripheral blood vessels. A circulating air bed distributes human weight across a greater area, lowering pressure against capillary beds and allowing better tissue perfusion. A client who lost 35% of her complete body surface area in a fire is currently 48 hours postburn. The peripheral vascular system (PVS) comprises all blood vessels located outside of the heart. A cardiovascular disorder in which blood arteries constrict, reducing blood flow to the limbs.
Peripheral vascular disease is caused by the accumulation of fatty deposits and calcium in the artery walls (atherosclerosis). Aging, diabetes, and smoking are all risk factors. Leg soreness, especially when walking, is one of the symptoms. Tobacco cessation, exercise, and a balanced diet are frequently effective remedies. When these improvements are insufficient, medication may be used.
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You are on scene at a suspected terror attack in which a RDD has detonated. A 67-year-old patient reports tightness in his chest. The patient is coughing up blood and is in respiratory distress. During the physical assessment, you notice subcutaneous emphysema. Which condition does the patient most likely have
The most likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing chest tightness, coughing up blood, and respiratory distress is a blast lung injury.
The patient most likely has a condition called a blast lung injury. It is a type of traumatic injury to the lungs that occurs as a result of exposure to a blast wave. Symptoms include tightness in the chest, coughing up blood, respiratory distress, and subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema is the presence of air or gas in the subcutaneous tissue and is a sign of a blast lung injury.
The patient requires immediate medical attention, typically in a hospital setting with a trauma center. The treatment for a blast lung injury typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and mechanical ventilation, as well as management of any other injuries that the patient may have sustained.
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When evaluating drug-related data from animal studies, which of these questions should be asked?
A. Was the dosing regimen used similar to that used by humans?
B. Was the route of administration similar to that used by humans?
C. Was the drug self-administered by the animal
Questions on the dosing regimen, the method of administration, and the drug that the animal personality are answered while assessing substance data from animal experimentation.
What makes anything a drug?Since "drug" is derived from the French term "drogue," which meaning dry herb, it is clear that the earliest drugs were derived from plant sources. The earliest people employed a variety of unusual therapies for ailments, involving plants, meat products, and minerals.
How do medicines function?Drugs affect how neurons use transmitters to send, interpret, and respond to information. Because some drugs, like cocaine and marijuana, have chemical structures that are similar to those of organic neurotransmitters in the body, they can stimulate neurons.
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Many screening measures can be considered diagnostic since they provide extremely detailed data about a students skills in particular literacy domains. T/F
Screening measures can be considered diagnostic because they provide detailed data about students' skills in a particular literacy field is true because screening measures can assist in determining appropriate teaching methods so that learning objectives can be achieved optimally.
What is skill?Skill is an ability that is learned to act with a determined result with good practice, often a certain amount of time, energy, or both. Skills can be divided into 2 namely domain-general and domain-specific skills.
The skills possessed by students are:
Critical thinkingCreativityCollaborationCommunicationsInformation literacyMedia literacyTechnology literacySome learning strategies to improve students' abilities are:
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The nurse is reinforcing education to a client with a venous thromboembolism who is prescribed rivaroxaban. Which statement by the client indicates the medication teaching has been effective?
1. "I need to continue to avoid eating spinach and kale."
2. "I probably will have some weakness in my legs when I take this medicine."
3. "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
4. "I will have to get blood drawn routinely to check my clotting levels."
Answer: 3 "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
Factor Xa inhibitors (eg, rivaroxaban [Xarelto], edoxaban, apixaban) are anticoagulants used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism. Factor Xa inhibitors are being prescribed more frequently than other oral anticoagulants (eg, warfarin), as they have a lower risk of bleeding and require less ongoing monitoring (eg, PT/INR).
The combined anticoagulant effects increase the risk for uncontrolled bleeding and hemorrhage.
What is rivaroxaban ?
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant drug (blood thinner) used to treat and prevent blood clots. It is marketed under the trade names Xarelto and others. In particular, it is used to avoid blood clots in atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary emboli as well as to treat these conditions, as well as to prevent them after hip or knee surgery. It is ingested orally.
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a 39 year old patient underwent a left femoral hernia repair. The postoperative diagnosis was recurrent left femoral hernia. What is the diagnosis code for this encounter
A femoral hernia typically develops near the top of the inner thigh when fatty tissue or a portion of the colon protrudes into the groin. Look for Hernia/femoral/recurrent in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index. You're told to go to K41.91. Therefore, K41.91 will be the encounter's diagnosis code.
The femoral canal is when the femoral hernia pushes through a weak place in the abdominal wall, the surrounding muscular wall. Just below the groin, you could notice a bulge in the upper thigh. The majority of femoral hernias are symptomless. You can have some groin pain. When you stand, lift large objects, or exert yourself, it can get worse.
In order to communicate diseases, symptoms, aberrant findings, and other components of a patient's diagnosis in a fashion that is widely recognized by people in the medical and insurance industries, healthcare professionals employ the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) codes.
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A woman who delivered her infant 2 days ago asks the nurse why she wakes up at night drenched in sweat. She is concerned that this is a problem. The nurse's best reply would be:
The nurse's best reply would be sweating is common in the first few days after childbirth because your body has to expel all of the extra fluids from pregnancy.
Diaphoresis is common among postpartum women as just a mechanism to eliminate extra fluids and waste through the skin. During the initial days after giving birth, it isn't uncommon for a mother to wake up soaked in perspiration. This is a common occurrence and is not a reason for alarm.
Sweating is the body's natural method of controlling its temperature. Sweating is frequently caused by physical effort, an increase in body temperature, and exposure to heat. Sweat functions as a coolant, lowering internal body temperature.
In some circumstances, mental or emotional stress may cause a person to sweat in the armpits or the palms of their hands. Diaphoresis normally goes away after the underlying reason is identified. This article examines the various causes and treatment options.
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A nurse is educating a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes. Which example demonstrates cognitive learning by the client
The example that demonstrates cognitive learning by the client is that the client describes signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Diabetes, commonly known as diabetes mellitus, is a collection of metabolic illnesses defined by a persistently high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). Frequent urination, thirst, and increased hunger are common symptoms. Diabetes, if left untreated, causes a slew of health problems. Diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, and mortality are all examples of acute complications. Cardiovascular disease, stroke, chronic renal disease, foot ulcers, nerve damage, eye damage, and cognitive impairment are all serious long-term consequences.
Diabetics may also develop diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a metabolic disorder marked by nausea, vomiting, and stomach discomfort, the odour of acetone on the breath, deep breathing known as Kussmaul breathing, and, in extreme instances, a lowered level of awareness. DKA necessitates hospitalisation for immediate treatment.
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In the early days of Biden's administration, the cold death hand of government regulation stretched farther than it did under Obama.
Answer:
Yes, the Biden administration has implemented more government regulations and restrictions than the Obama administration. This includes stricter environmental regulations, higher taxes, and more stringent labor laws. Additionally, the Biden administration has also implemented a number of executive orders that have further increased the power of the federal government.
Explanation:
A group of grade-school children is going camping. As a school nurse, you would offer them which advice to prevent Lyme disease?
a) "Don't approach strange animals outside the campsite."
b) "Don't drink water from mountain streams while hiking."
c) "Don't touch any bush without knowing what kind it is."
d) "Wear jeans tucked inside your socks when in the woods."
Advise the children to "Wear jeans tucked inside your socks when in the woods" to prevent Lyme disease.
What is mean by Lyme disease? How to prevent Lyme disease?Lyme disease is an infection caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is spread by ticks.
Symptoms of the disease may include a rash, fever, chills, headache, joint pain, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes.
If left untreated, it can cause serious complications, such as arthritis, meningitis, and heart problems.
To prevent Lyme disease, it's important to take precautions when spending time outdoors.
Wear light-colored clothing and long pants and sleeves, use insect repellent, and check yourself and your family for ticks after being outdoors.
Additionally, it's important to avoid areas with tall grass and brush, as ticks often hide in these areas.
If ticks are found on you, be sure to remove them promptly. If you develop any symptoms of Lyme disease, be sure to see a doctor right away.
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a. Describe the three stages of prenatal development your baby will go through during the pregnancy.
Answer:
1. Germinal Stage (First two weeks after conception are known as the Germinal stage)
2. Embryonic Period (The third through the eighth week is known as the Embryonic period)
3. Fetal Period (The time from the ninth week until birth is known as the Fetal period)
Explanation:
nurse is reading a journal article about the use of real-time ultrasonography, which allows the health care provider to obtain information about the fetus. The nurse would expect the article to describe which type of information
Nurse is reading a journal article about the use of real-time ultrasonography, and she would expect the article to describe biophysical profile.
A biophysical profile is a antenatal ultrasound evaluation of fetal well- being involving a scoring system, with the score being nominated Manning's score. It's frequently done when anon-stress test is non reactive, or for other obstetrical suggestions.
A fetus or foetus is the future seed that develops from an beast embryo. After the 9 weeks of fertilization, the fetal period is begun. In mortal antenatal development, fetal development begins from the ninth week after fertilization and continues until birth.
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Collaborating with specialists is an important part of primary care involving patients with neurologic injuries. It isimportant as an APN to know when to refer to a specialist and what the goal of that referral is: furtherinformation, diagnostic testing or treatment recommendations
It is important as an APN to know when to refer to a specialist when a patient has a neurological injury and the purpose of that referral is for diagnostic testing.
What is a neurological injury?Neurological injury or nerve injury is a disorder that affects parts of the brain and nervous system. There are various types of neurological disorders, namely :
Multiple Sclerosis is a disease thought to be caused by the environment, genetics, and viruses. This disease is usually characterized by a tingling feeling, numbness, or weakness in several limbs.Alzheimer's is a disorder that often occurs in elderly patients and is usually characterized by memory loss in the brain. Parkinson's attacks nerve cells in the middle of the brain which are useful for regulating the movement system in the body.Learn more about the main symptoms of neurological disorders here :
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Bioengineered organs can potentially reduce the risk of transplants being rejected by a patient's immune system. What is the best design for a study that examines transplant rejection of bioengineered organs in different ethnic groups
Compare the frequency of transplant rejection of one organ among different ethnic groups of people.
Biological engineering, often known as bioengineering, is the use of biological concepts and engineering methods to develop practical, tangible, and commercially viable goods. The application of life sciences, physical sciences, mathematics, and engineering concepts to describe and solve issues in biology, medicine, health care, and other domains is known as bioengineering.
Healthy human cells (produced from organ tissue lost during surgery) and biomaterials are used to construct bioartificial organs. A bioartificial kidney, for example, is created by cleverly attaching kidney cells to a ′membrane′, a porous capillary built from artificial polymer fibre. Bioengineers and biomedical engineers commonly perform the following tasks: Create medical equipment and technologies such as artificial internal organs, body part replacements, and diagnostic instruments. Biomedical equipment installation, maintenance, and technical assistance.
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A patient who suffers from renal failure increases his water intake to account for his low urine output. What will happen to his electrolyte balance
The excess water his kidneys cannot excrete will dilute body fluids and lead to an imbalance in electrolytes.
By constantly filtering the blood, the kidneys maintain the body's fluid and electrolyte balance. This is necessary to keep the extracellular fluid volume & composition stable. Electrolytes are essential for maintaining homeostatic conditions with in body, as well as for conveying electrical impulses and information between cells. Electrolyte abnormalities are one of the most serious consequences of dehydration.
When the concentration of a mineral, or electrolyte, gets too high or too low in relation to the amount of water accessible in the body, an electrolyte imbalance ensues. While electrolyte levels are excessively high, the resultant condition is designated with the prefix "hyper-" and then when electrolyte levels were low, or deficient, the following condition usually denoted with the prefix "hypo-".
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Choose the correct answer:-
with regard to obstetric history:
1. pregnancy is dated from conception
2. parity is the total number of pregnancies regardless of how they ended
3. a previous history of pre eclampsia should trigger increased antenatal surveillance
4. the last menstrual period is reliable if cycle is irregular
The correct answer with regard to obstetric history is option :
2. Parity is the total number of pregnancies regardless of how they ended.
3. A previous history of pre eclampsia should trigger increased antenatal surveillance.
What is obstetric history about?Obstetric history refers to a woman's medical history related to pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum. This includes information about past pregnancies, such as the number of pregnancies, the number of live births, the number of miscarriages or abortions, and the dates of these events.
Therefore, It also includes information about any complications that occurred during pregnancy or childbirth, such as pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, or cesarean delivery.
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After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which statement is true?
After a person experiences a closure of epiphyses, true statement is No further increase in bone length occurred. After the ends of the bones closure, the bone length cannot be increased any further.
What is the cause of premature closure of the epiphyseal plate?Premature closure of the ends is usually due to cartilage injury. Rarely, vitamin A derivatives are known to cause premature bone closure
What happens when epiphyseal plates close?As children grow, the growth plates turn into strong bones. A solid growth plate entirely made of solid bone is a self-contained growth plate. After the growth plate closes, the bone stops growing. Hormone Estrogen accelerates bone head fusion and suppresses longitudinal bone growth.
What factors affect bone end closure?Important predisposing factors include the ability to differentiate chondrocytes, multiple molecular pathways operating in the growth plate, and axis I activation of insulin-like growth hormone-like growth factor and expression fusion. tissues by estrogen and its receptors.
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How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)
Children should be restricted to approximately 30 minutes of vigorous exercise in hot and humid environments including frequent rest periods.
Exercise is any form of physical activity of the body that results in a healthy and active body. There are several forms of exercise from mild brisk walking to high intensity exercises like weight lifting, cardio, etc. The goal for exercising could be different among different individuals like weight loss, muscle gain, fitness, etc.
Rest period is the small duration time interval where a person does not exercise. The aim of rest period is that the body gains back its strength and power. The muscles are allowed to recover during this stage. It usually lasts from 2-5 minutes.
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At visit 3, Subject 411, a subject in a clinical trial of a pacemaker with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) was noted to have a malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system resulting in frequent ICD discharges (shocks). Subject 411 was admitted to the hospital to have the ICD removed and replaced. The investigator should:
The investigator should report this event as an UADE (unanticipated adverse device effect) to the sponsor and IRB within ten working days.
This event is considered unanticipated because the subject had not previously experienced frequent ICD discharges (shocks) and the malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system was not anticipated. Reporting this event is important for patient safety and to ensure that the sponsor and the IRB are aware of any potential hazards of the device.
Additionally, reporting this event within ten working days allows for quicker action on the part of the sponsor and IRB to investigate the cause of the ICD malfunction and take corrective action if necessary. It also allows for the investigation of the ICD device and any potential risks that may be associated with its use.
By reporting this event as an UADE, it will ensure that patient safety is a priority and that any potential risks are monitored and addressed.
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What effect on sodium and chloride ions would a patient with Addison's disease (decrease in aldosterone secretion) experience
A decrease in aldosterone production (e.g., Addison disease) causes increased sodium loss from the kidney and hyponatremia.
Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances come from aldosterone deficit, which promotes urine loss of salt, chloride, and water. Addison's disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency, is a rare long-term endocrine illness marked by insufficient synthesis of the steroid hormones cortisol and aldosterone by the two outer layers of the adrenal gland cells, resulting in adrenal insufficiency. Symptoms often appear gradually and insidiously, and may include stomach discomfort, gastrointestinal problems, weakness, and weight loss.
Addison's disease is caused by adrenal gland abnormalities that result in insufficient production of the steroid hormones cortisol and potentially aldosterone. It is a genetically predisposed autoimmune condition in which the body's own immune system has begun to target the adrenal gland. While it can occur after TB, in many adult instances, the cause of the condition is unknown.
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When the dental assistant is placing the liners, base , or varnish, the cavity preparation should be examined and the pulpal involvement assessed. Explain the depths of the cavity preparation it relates to pulpal involvement
When the pulp chamber's entrance can be seen due to advanced caries or when the crown has been completely destroyed and only the roots are left, pulpal involvement is noted.
The center of a tooth is called the dental pulp, and it is made up of connective tissue, blood vessels, and cells. If this becomes infected, it could hurt and require root canal treatment to save the tooth. Pulp testing techniques based on optical technology include laser Doppler flowmetry (LDF), transmitted laser light (TLL), laser speckle imaging (LSI), pulse oximetry (PO), transmitted light plethysmography (TLP), and dual wavelength spectrophotometry (DWS). Numerous factors, like as severe caries, trauma, or unintentionally filling a cavity in the dentist chair, might expose the tooth pulp. There may be serious repercussions, such as discomfort, infection, and necrosis.
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which of the followiing vital signs indicate increased pressure within the skull following head trau,a
Vital signs indicating increased pressure in the skull after head trauma are headache, double vision, and increased blood pressure.
What is pressure in the skull?Pressure in the skull is also known as intracranial pressure. This pressure can show the condition of brain tissue, cerebrospinal fluid, and brain blood vessels. Under certain conditions, intracranial pressure can increase and cause certain symptoms that need to be watched out for.
Raised intracranial pressure left untreated can lead to serious, life-threatening conditions. Symptoms include nausea and vomiting, headaches, increased blood pressure, and double vision.
Your question is incomplete. maybe the point of your question is
Which of the following vital signs indicate increased pressure within the skull following head trauma?
Headache, double vision, and increased blood pressure.The body feels feverish and tiredLearn more about head trauma complications here :
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Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:
Based on the results of the physical examination, the client has hyperthyroidism. If the thyroid gland is enlarged, use the bell to listen for vascular sounds. The blood supply is dramatically increased in a hypermetabolic state, and a vascular bruit, a soft rushing sound, may be heard.
The thyroid gland is an important hormone gland that regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the human body. It aids in the regulation of many body functions by continuously releasing a consistent amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.
Hyperthyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormone. This condition is also known as overactive thyroid. Hyperthyroidism causes the body's metabolism to accelerate. This can result in a variety of symptoms, including weight loss and hand tremors.
Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:
A. hypothyroidism.
B. hyperthyroidism.
C. thyroid cancer.
D. thyroid cyst.
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Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to a. blocks transport of the neurotransmitter molecule through the axon membrane. b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule. c. increase the number of postsynaptic receptors. d. increase release of the neurotransmitter. e. increase synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule.
Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.
The correct option is B.
Neurotransmitter molecules are promptly destroyed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft after release and attachment to postsynaptic receptors. They are also reabsorbed by presynaptic membrane receptors and recycled. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors.
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Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4' 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
The area of psoriasis which is detected in Mrs. Britton is indicative of plaque, which means option A is the right answer.
The plaque refers to the sticky film of bacteria which is constantly formed on teeth. It is caused due to left over food which deteriorates inside the mouth with the help of good bacteria present inside the mouth in the saliva. Psoriasis is a skin disease in which rashes and itchy skin is formed on the body which causes irritation and in extreme cases may even lead to fever and headache like condition. It can worsen in case of injury, alcohol consumption, smoking or stress. It is a chronic disease which can be treated through some medications but no permanent cure is available.
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To refer to complete questions, see below:
Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4- × 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
a. plaque.
b. patch.
c. macule.
d. papule.
The nurse is providing teaching about accidental poisoning to the family of a 3-year-old. The nurse understands that a child of
The nurse understands that a child of this age is at increased risk of accidental ingestion due to a less discriminating sense of taste.
Caustic ingestion happens when a person inadvertently or intentionally consumes a caustic or corrosive material. Depending on the type of the material, the length of exposure, and other conditions, it can cause varied degrees of damage to the oral mucosa, oesophagus, and stomach lining.
Endoscopy of the upper digestive system can identify the degree of the damage, but CT scanning may be more beneficial in determining whether surgery is necessary. During the healing phase, oesophageal strictures may occur, necessitating therapeutic dilatation and the insertion of a stent. Ingestions of acids with pH less than 2 or alkalis with pH greater than 12 can result in the most severe damage.
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Individuals should participate in activities __________ to improve cardiovascular fitness. A. twice a day B. three to five days a week C. two to three days a week D. seven days a week Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D Mark this and return
Individuals should participate in activities three to five days a week to improve cardiovascular fitness. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Three to five days a week is the recommendation from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) and the American Heart Association (AHA) for adults to participate in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 minutes per week, or vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 75 minutes per week, or a combination of both, spread across at least three days of the week. This frequency of physical activity is sufficient to achieve cardiovascular fitness and improve overall health.
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Answer: b
Explanation:
The characteristics of type one diabetes…
Answer:
Symptoms
Feeling more thirsty than usual.Urinating a lot.Bed-wetting in children who have never wet the bed during the night.Feeling very hungry.Losing weight without trying.Feeling irritable or having other mood changes.Feeling tired and weak.Having blurry vision.
b. A 24 year old newly diagnosed with seizures is prescribed phenytoin. The client asks the nurse if she will still be able to take her oral contraceptive medication. How should the nurse respond?
The nurse must respond to the query of the women on oral contraceptive by responding that she must use a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin, which means option B is the right answer.
Oral Contraceptives are the pills which are taken by the women before and after intercourse to prevent the egg from fertilizing. It is one of the most commonly used method to avoid unwanted pregnancy. Phenytoin is the anti-seizure drug which is used to decreasing abnormal electrical activity in the brain. It has some side effects like flu, rashes etc. Phenytoin can reduce the effects of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) and so the women will have to extra dosage of contraceptives which can be harmful for the body and so she is advised to use another method of birth control.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A patient is to begin taking phenytoin [Dilantin] for seizures. The patient tells the nurse that she is taking oral contraceptives. What will the nurse tell the patient?
a. She may need to increase her dose of phenytoin while taking oral contraceptives.
b. She should consider a different form of birth control while taking phenytoin.
c. She should remain on oral contraceptives, because phenytoin causes birth defects.
d. She should stop taking oral contraceptives, because they reduce the effectiveness of phenytoin.