Exercise 12.1.1: Coin flips and events. About A coin is flipped four times. For each of the events described below, express the event as a set in roster notation. Each outcome is written as a string of length 4 from {H, T}, such as HHTH. Assuming the coin is a fair coin, give the probability of each event. (a) The first and last flips come up heads. (b) There are at least two consecutive flips that come up heads. (c) The first flip comes up tails and there are at least two consecutive flips that come up heads.

Answer:

shawty i think we need more info to solve this-

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

13

Step-by-step explanation:

50 multiplied by .26

Answer:

x=22/9

Step-by-step explanation:

4(3√(x-2))+1=9

4(3√(x-2))=8

3√(x-2)=2

√(x-2)=2/3

x-2=4/9

x=4/9+2

x=4/9+18/9

x=22/9

Therefore, the solution is x=22/9

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that:

a) The mean is of 0.36 and the standard deviation is of 0.58.

b) There is a 0.0036 = 0.36% probability that there are exactly three universal donors.

The formula is:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

The values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.06.

Item a:

The mean is of 0.36 and the standard deviation is of 0.58.

Item b:

The probability is P(X = 3), hence:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{6,3}.(0.06)^{3}.(0.94)^{3} = 0.0036[/tex]

There is a 0.0036 = 0.36% probability that there are exactly three universal donors.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

48 is preimeter

96 is the area

Make me brainliest

Answer:

92 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

66

Step-by-step explanation:

55+59 =114

180-114=66

Answer:

7 and -6

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Factors: (x - 7) and (x + 6)

Required

Determine the zeros

To do this, we simply equate the factors to 0

[tex]x - 7 = 0[/tex]

[tex]x = 7[/tex]

[tex]x + 6 = 0[/tex]

[tex]x = -6[/tex]

So, the zeros are -7 and 6

Answer:

1=105

3=105

4=75

5=105

6=75

7=105

8=75

Step-by-step explanation:

angles 1 and 2 are supplementary, this means that the sum of the two angles equals 180(they make a straight line).

This means that the cross of the two lines(p and m) will cause angles 1 and 3 to be the same (2 and 4 will also be the same).

lines m and n are parallel, which means that angles 1,2,3, and 4 will be that same as their corresponding angle in angles 5,6,7, and 8.

I hope that made sense.

Answer:

<QPM and <QPR

Step-by-step explanation:

adjacent angles have a common vertex and side, and those are the only two that have a common side

hope this helps :)

if it does, can I get brainliest, please??!

Answer:

$25.35

Step-by-step explanation:

You just take off the percentage from the original price to get your final answer.

Hope this helps c:

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  117°

Step-by-step explanation:

We assume you want to report your bearing as an angle measured CW from North. For conventional angles greater than 90°, it will be ...

  450° -angle = 450° -333° = 117°

The bearing of the ship is 117°.

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

i did the math yeah

Answer:

b) $41.85

Step-by-step explanation:

Discount = Original Price x Discount %/100

Discount = 45 × 7/100

Discount = 45 x 0.07

You save = $3.15

Final Price = Original Price - Discount

Final Price = 45 - 3.15

Final Price = $41.85

hope this helps and is right. p.s. i really need brainliest :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

that would be A

Answer:

[tex]7\frac{3}{8}[/tex] pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert the fractions into improper fractions, and make them have the same denominator.

First package: [tex]3\frac{3}{4} =\frac{15}{4}=\frac{30}{8}[/tex]

Second package: [tex]1\frac{1}{8} =\frac{9}{8}[/tex]

Third package: [tex]2\frac{1}{2}=\frac{5}{2}=\frac{20}{8}[/tex]

Notice that all the fractions have the same denominator, making it easy to add up. Now we add up the fractions.

[tex]\frac{30}{8}+\frac{9}{8}+\frac{20}{8}=\frac{59}{8} =7\frac{3}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

-3/1

Step-by-step explanation:

The rise is 1 and the the run is 3 but the line goes from top left to top right so its negative.

Answer:

Multiplying each side by 5⇒ 15: 55

Multiplying each side by 10⇒30:110

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  3:11= 30:110 and 6:22

Step-by-step explanation:

30:110 is multipled by 10 and 6:22 is multiplied by 2!

It can be divided or multiplied by whatever number you want! If you want to divide it by one number, make sure that it will be without the remainder because it’s equivalent! I hope I helped you!

Answer:

I believe it is 12

Step-by-step explanation:

but I am not 100 percent sure

Answer:

I love algebra anyways  

the ans is in the picture with the steps  

(hope it helps can i plz have brainlist :D hehe)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m=1, m= -3

t=3, t=2

p= -0.4, p= -2

a= 3, a= -8

x=0, x= -2.5

Answer:

I hope this helps a little bit.

It Is Not Fake

It Got Answers Promise

Answer:

x=6.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I got the x- intercept as 6.5 because I found the x value when y equals 0.

0=2+2x-15

Next, I added 2+-15 and got -13.

0=2x-13

Then, I added 13 to both sides so that I could have x by itself.

13=2x

Next, I divided 2 on both sides so I could find the value of x.

6.5= x

In conclusion, the x- intercept of f(x)=2+2x-15 is 6.5.  

Answer:

angle klj and angle poq :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. 62

Step-by-step explanation:

All angles in a triangle are equivalent to 180. First find angle C. Which is 64. then subtract that by 180, which is 116. after that we combine like terms then solve for X. Combine like terms: 5x-9=116 X=25 We plug X into angle's A equation. And you get 62. hope this helps :)

Answer:

a = 72 mm is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

a = ?

b = 21 mm

c = 75 mm

According to the Pythagoras theorem

a² + b² = c²

a² + 21² = 75²

a² + 441 = 5625

a² = 5625 - 441

a² = 5184

a = 72 mm

∴ a = 72 mm is the length of the missing leg.

Answer:

ESTEBAN IS FOKING BROKE

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

exposed is another word for endangered

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  200 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

1 meter is 100 cm, so 6 meters is 600 cm. Each piece is 1/3 of that, so is ...

  (600 cm)/3 = 200 cm . . . length of each piece