Distinguish between the following: (a) Well-conditioned system and Ill-conditioned system. [3 marks) (b) Consistent system and Inconsistent system [3 marks] (c) Bisection and Newton Raphson method of solving non-linear equations.

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

15 cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

10 cookies is equivalent to 2 scoops of flour.

You need to find how many cookies they can make with just 1 scoop of flour.

So, to do that, you'd need to do 10/2, which is 5.

10 represents the number of cookies, and 2 represents the scoops of flour. (5 represents the number of cookies you can make with 1 scoop of flour.)

This will work with any certain amount of flour, just use the equation 5 times X, where X is the amount of flour.

In this certain problem, they gave us the scoops of flour.

Replace X with 3.

3 times 5 = 15.

15 cookies.

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

u start at (0,9.5) and with every increasing x value the y value is decreasing by .5 units

Answer:36.36%

Step-by-step explanation:

%change=100 X (final-inital value) divided by initial

Answer:

387.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

Using Richardson's extrapolation the improved approximation of the first derivative at x = 0 is  -4.94543.

A formula of order 4 for approximating the first derivative of a function f gives two values: f'(0) = -4.50557 for h = 1 and f'(0) = 2.09702 for h = 0.5.

To obtain a better approximation using Richardson's extrapolation, we can use these two values and apply the following formula:

f'(0) = f'(0) + (f'(0) - f'(0)) / (h^p - 1)

where p is the order of the formula (in this case, p = 4).

Using the given values, we have:

f'(0) = 2.09702 + (2.09702 - (-4.50557)) / ((0.5/1)^4 - 1)

Simplifying the expression:

f'(0) = 2.09702 + 6.60259 / (0.0625 - 1)

f'(0) = 2.09702 + 6.60259 / (-0.9375)

f'(0) = 2.09702 - 7.04245

f'(0) ≈ -4.94543

Therefore, the improved approximation of the first derivative at x = 0 using Richardson's extrapolation is f'(0) ≈ -4.94543.

To know more about Richardson's extrapolation refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/32618703

#SPJ11

Answer:

y=-1/2x+4 Is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b

3=2x+4

-1=2x

x=-1/2

You already know y is 4 so y=-1/2x+4

Answer: 18) (9x)° + 45° = 180°-45°= 135° then we isolate the variable and the answer is 9x/9 which is equal to x = 15°.

Step-by-step explanation: 18) supplementary angles add up to 180 degrees. So a supplementary angle lies on a single, straight line

a. The replacement free cash flows is $255,000

b.  The Payback Period time required to recover the initial investment is 2.7778 years.

d. By calculating the NPV at various discount rates, we can determine the rate at which NPV is closest to zero.

a. To calculate the replacement free cash flows, we need to consider the cash flows associated with the new fleet of trucks. Here's the calculation:

Initial cash outflow: Purchase cost of new trucks + Shipping cost

= $350,000 + $50,000

= $400,000

Annual cash flows:

Operating cost savings:

Diesel fuel savings: $250,000 - $150,000 = $100,000

Maintenance cost savings: $35,000 - $10,000 = $25,000

Net operating working capital reduction: $20,000

Total operating cost savings per year: $100,000 + $25,000 + $20,000 = $145,000

Revenue increase:

Revenue growth rate: 10%

Year 1 revenue increase: $800,000 * 10% = $80,000

Year 2 revenue increase: $800,000 * 10% = $80,000

Year 3 revenue increase: $800,000 * 10% = $80,000

Year 4 revenue increase: $800,000 * 10% = $80,000

Year 5 revenue increase: $800,000 * 10% = $80,000

Salvage value: Market value of the new trucks at the end of 5 years = $30,000

Free cash flows:

Year 0: Initial cash outflow = -$400,000

Year 1: Cash flow = Operating cost savings + Revenue increase = $145,000 + $80,000 = $225,000

Year 2: Cash flow = Operating cost savings + Revenue increase = $145,000 + $80,000 = $225,000

Year 3: Cash flow = Operating cost savings + Revenue increase = $145,000 + $80,000 = $225,000

Year 4: Cash flow = Operating cost savings + Revenue increase = $145,000 + $80,000 = $225,000

Year 5: Cash flow = Operating cost savings + Revenue increase + Salvage value = $145,000 + $80,000 + $30,000 = $255,000

b. The Payback Period is the time required to recover the initial investment. To calculate it, we sum the cash flows until they equal or exceed the initial investment. Here's the calculation:

Payback Period = Number of years to recover initial investment

= 2 years (Year 1 cash flow + Year 2 cash flow)

+ (Remaining investment / Year 3 cash flow)

= 2 years + ($400,000 - $225,000) / $225,000

= 2 years + 0.7778 years

= 2.7778 years

c. To calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) and Profitability Index (PI), we need to discount the cash flows using the given discount rate of 15%. Here's the calculation:

Discount rate: 15%

Present value factor for each year:

Year 0: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^0 = 1

Year 1: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^1 = 0.8696

Year 2: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^2 = 0.7561

Year 3: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^3 = 0.6575

Year 4: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^4 = 0.5718

Year 5: 1 / (1 + Discount rate)^5 = 0.4972

NPV calculation:

NPV = (Year 0 cash flow) + (Year 1 cash flow * Present value factor) + (Year 2 cash flow * Present value factor) + ...

= -$400,000 + ($225,000 * 0.8696) + ($225,000 * 0.7561) + ($225,000 * 0.6575) + ($225,000 * 0.5718) + ($255,000 * 0.4972)

Profitability Index calculation:

PI = NPV / Initial investment

= NPV / $400,000

d. To calculate the Internal Rate of Return (IRR), we find the discount rate that makes the NPV equal to zero. Here's the calculation:

IRR = Discount rate that makes NPV equal to zero

By calculating the NPV at various discount rates, we can determine the rate at which NPV is closest to zero.

e. Based on the information provided, we can determine if the fleet should be replaced by considering the Payback Period, NPV, Profitability Index, and IRR.

If the Payback Period is within the company's acceptable timeframe and the NPV is positive, or the Profitability Index is greater than 1, and the IRR exceeds the company's required rate of return, then replacing the fleet would be financially favorable. If any of these criteria are not met, it would indicate that the replacement may not be the best option.

Please note that the calculation of IRR requires further information, and the final decision should consider additional factors such as qualitative aspects, operational requirements, and strategic considerations.

Without the specific values for cash flows in each year, it is not possible to provide a definitive answer to whether the fleet should be replaced based on the given information.

To learn more about Profitability Index

https://brainly.com/question/30924864

#SPJ11

Answer:

1)  regular price ⇒ $X

Sale price:75,24

Regular price: 100, X

2) The Ratio of the numbers in the first column equals the to ratio

of numbers in the second one

so.. [tex]\frac{75}{124}=\frac{100}{x} \\[/tex]

X=100 ×24/75

X=$32

Regular price-sale price=32-24=$8

hope it helps...

Answer:

Its c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

-2,10 is the answer according to my working

Question:

Rewrite the function to reveal when sales of compact discs and $0.

Answer:

The cost in 2010 is $0

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]C(x) = -2x^2 + 38x + 40[/tex]

Required

Find x when [tex]C(x) = 0[/tex]

This gives:

[tex]C(x) = -2x^2 + 38x + 40[/tex]

[tex]-2x^2 + 38x + 40=0[/tex]

Expand

[tex]-2x^2 + 40x -2x+ 40=0[/tex]

Factorize:

[tex]-2x(x - 20) -2(x- 20)=0[/tex]

[tex](-2x - 2)(x- 20)=0[/tex]

Solve for x

[tex]-2x-2=0\ or\ x - 20 = 0[/tex]

[tex]x = -1\ or\ x = 20[/tex]

x represents time.  So, it cannot be negative.

[tex]x = 20[/tex]

20 years after 1990 is: 2010. Hence, the cost in 2010 is $0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

This depends on many other things but in a basic tax bracket, both Joses and Mark both fall under the 12% tax bracket. This is for individuals who make a yearly salary between $9,876 to $40,125, in which the taxes would be 12% of the yearly salary. Since this is percent based, their taxes would not be the same, they would be close but Mark would still end up paying a little bit more since he made more money.

Answer: I BELIVE it’s 60

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

We can be 95% confident that wind speed decreases, on average, between 1.20 knots and 1.42 knots for each millibar increase in minimum pressure.

Step-by-step explanation:

The computed confidence interval for a certain statistical parameter gives a range of value represented by a minimum value and a maximum value. The α value upon which the value was calculated represents the probability of the estimated value containing the true value of the parameter in question.

The minimum and maximum values represents the range of possible slope parameters, the true value falls in between two negative values, thus we have a negative slope, depicting a decline in one variable and the as the other increases.

From the options above, the most appropriate option is ;

We can be 95% confident that wind speed decreases, on average, between 1.20 knots and 1.42 knots for each millibar increase in minimum pressure.

Answer:

See Explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is incomplete as the image that illustrates the scenario is not given.

However, I can deduce that the question is about a right-angled triangle.

So, I will give a general explanation on how to find each of the side of the triangle, given a side and an angle.

For triangle A (solve for b)

Using cosine formula.

[tex]\cos \theta = \frac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]\cos 60= \frac{5}{b}[/tex]

Make b the subject

[tex]b= \frac{5}{\cos 60}[/tex]

For triangle B (solve for b)

Using cosine formula.

[tex]\sin \theta = \frac{Opposite}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]\sin 60= \frac{b}{5}[/tex]

Make b the subject

[tex]b = 5\sin 60[/tex]

For triangle C (solve for b)

Using cosine formula.

[tex]\tan \theta = \frac{Opposite}{Adjacent}[/tex]

[tex]\tan 60= \frac{b}{5}[/tex]

Make b the subject

[tex]b = 5\tan 60[/tex]

Answer:

Did you get the answer If so please give it to me.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

10. a1=3, a2=1, a3=3, a4=1, a5=3

11. a3=2x1=2, a4=2x2=4, a5=4x2=8

hope that helps :)

Answer:

(3)

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) The main theorem states that the sum of terms in the given sequence satisfies the equation n(n+1)/2 for various values of n.

(b) The induction step theorem for n = 64 states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, it also holds for n = k + 1.

(c) The induction step theorem for n = 583 states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, it also holds for n = k + 1.

(d) The induction step theorem for n = N states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, it also holds for n = k + 1.

(e) The combination of the induction step in (d) and verification of base cases in (a) completes the proof of the main theorem for all positive integers.

(a) The main theorem states that for any positive integer n, the sum of the terms k=1 to n of the sequence n(n+1)/2 is equal to n(n+1)/2.

Illustrating the main theorem for different values of n:

For n = 1: The sum is 1(1+1)/2 = 1, which holds true.

For n = 2: The sum is 2(2+1)/2 = 3, which holds true.

For n = 3: The sum is 3(3+1)/2 = 6, which holds true.

For n = 4: The sum is 4(4+1)/2 = 10, which holds true.

For n = 5: The sum is 5(5+1)/2 = 15, which holds true.

For n = 6: The sum is 6(6+1)/2 = 21, which holds true.

For n = 7: The sum is 7(7+1)/2 = 28, which holds true.

(b) The Induction Step Theorem for n = 64 states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, then it also holds for n = k + 1.

To prove it, assume that the main theorem holds for n = k, i.e., the sum of k terms is k(k+1)/2.

Then, we need to show that the sum of (k+1) terms is (k+1)((k+1)+1)/2 = (k+1)(k+2)/2.

By adding the (k+1)th term to the sum of k terms, we get (k(k+1)/2) + (k+1) = (k+1)(k+2)/2, which is the desired result.

(c) The Induction Step Theorem for n = 583 states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, then it also holds for n = k + 1.

To prove it, assume that the main theorem holds for n = k, i.e., the sum of k terms is k(k+1)/2.

Then, we need to show that the sum of (k+1) terms is (k+1)((k+1)+1)/2 = (k+1)(k+2)/2.

By adding the (k+1)th term to the sum of k terms, we get (k(k+1)/2) + (k+1) = (k+1)(k+2)/2, which is the desired result.

(d) The Induction Step Theorem for n = N states that if the main theorem holds for n = k, then it also holds for n = k + 1.

To prove it, assume that the main theorem holds for n = k, i.e., the sum of k terms is k(k+1)/2.

Then, we need to show that the sum of (k+1) terms is (k+1)((k+1)+1)/2 = (k+1)(k+2)/2.

By adding the (k+1)th term to the sum of k terms, we get (k(k+1)/2) + (k+1) = (k+1)(k+2)/2, which is the desired result.

(e) The proof of the induction step in (d) combined with the verification of several base cases in (a) completes the proof of the Main Theorem because it establishes that the theorem holds for all positive integers. The induction step shows that if the theorem holds for any positive integer, it also holds for the next integer. By verifying the base cases, we ensure that the theorem holds for the initial integers. Therefore, by the principle of mathematical induction, the theorem holds for all positive integers.

To learn more about principle of mathematical induction visit : https://brainly.com/question/29503103

#SPJ11

Answer:

234

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the expression. an=5n-16. Substitute 50 for n. 5(50)-16= 250-16=234

For problems like this, simplifying the equation helps.

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 2.43m^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 2.43cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

PLEASE mark me BRAINIEST! One more until next ranking!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of cone formula: V = 1/3 πr²h

r = 1/2 d

r = 1/2 (17.5)

r = 8.75 in

V = 1/3 (π8.75²)(18.5)

V = 1483.26 in²

The 95% confidence interval for the mean length difference between two-year-old flounder and one-year-old flounder is (8.03 mm, 21.53 mm).

Using a t-table or calculator, we can find the t-value corresponding to a 95% confidence level and 109 degrees of freedom. The t-value is approximately 1.984.

Substituting the values into the formula:

CI = (134.96 - 120.18) ± 1.984 * √[(18.08² / 110) + (27.41² / 138)]

CI = 14.78 ± 1.984 * √[(327.2064 / 110) + (752.6681 / 138)]

CI = 14.78 ± 1.984 * √[2.9746 + 5.4557]

CI = 14.78 ± 1.984 * √8.4303

CI = 14.78 ± 1.984 * 2.9015

CI = 14.78 ± 5.7519

CI = (8.0281, 21.5319)

The 95% confidence interval for the mean length difference between two-year-old flounder and one-year-old flounder is (8.03 mm, 21.53 mm).

Learn more about confidence interval on

https://brainly.com/question/15712887

#SPJ4

T is diagonalizable, and the matrix P = [(1, -3), (1, 1)] is the transformation matrix that diagonalizes T. The diagonal matrix D is D = [(7.5, 22.5), (2.5, 7.5)].

To find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the linear operator T: R2 → R2 given by T(x, y) = (3x + 3y, x + 5y), we can follow the steps outlined in the subtasks.

Subtask (1): Finding Eigenvalues and Eigenvectors

To find the eigenvalues, we need to solve the equation (T - λI)v = 0, where λ is the eigenvalue, I is the identity matrix, and v is the eigenvector.

Let's set up the equation:

(T - λI)v = 0

[(3x + 3y) - λx, (x + 5y) - λy] = [0, 0]

Expanding the equations, we get:

(3 - λ)x + 3y = 0 ...(1)

x + (5 - λ)y = 0 ...(2)

For nontrivial solutions (v ≠ 0), the determinant of the coefficient matrix must be zero. So we have:

[tex](3 - \lambda)(5 - \lambda) - 3 = 0\\(15 - 8 \lambda + \lambda^2) - 3 = 0\\ \lambda^2 - 8 \lambda+ 12 = 0\\( \lambda - 6)( \lambda - 2) = 0[/tex]

Solving for λ, we find two eigenvalues:

λ1 = 6 and λ2 = 2

For each eigenvalue, we need to find the corresponding eigenvectors by substituting back into equations (1) and (2).

For λ1 = 6:

From equation (1): (3 - 6)x + 3y = 0

-3x + 3y = 0

x = y

So, the eigenvector corresponding to λ1 = 6 is v1 = (1, 1).

For λ2 = 2:

From equation (1): (3 - 2)x + 3y = 0

x + 3y = 0

x = -3y

So, the eigenvector corresponding to λ2 = 2 is v2 = (-3, 1).

Subtask (2): Basis for Each Eigenspace

The eigenspace corresponding to an eigenvalue λ is the set of all eigenvectors associated with that eigenvalue. To find a basis for each eigenspace, we can take linearly independent eigenvectors.

For λ1 = 6, the eigenspace is spanned by the eigenvector v1 = (1, 1).

For λ2 = 2, the eigenspace is spanned by the eigenvector v2 = (-3, 1).

Subtask (3): Maximum Set of Linearly Independent Eigenvectors

The maximum set S of linearly independent eigenvectors can be formed by taking one eigenvector from each distinct eigenvalue. In this case, S = {v1, v2} = {(1, 1), (-3, 1)}.

Subtask (4): Diagonalizability

To check if T is diagonalizable, we need to determine if there exists a basis for R2 consisting of eigenvectors of T. If we can find a basis consisting of eigenvectors, then T is diagonalizable.

Since we have a maximum set of linearly independent eigenvectors, S = {(1, 1), (-3, 1)}, we can form a matrix P with these eigenvectors as columns:

P = [(1, -3), (1, 1)]

To find the diagonal matrix D, we use the formula D = P^(-1)[T]P, where [T] is the matrix representation of T in the usual basis.

Calculating P^(-1):

P^(-1) = 1/4 [(1, 3), (-1, 1)]

Now, calculating D:

D = P^(-1)[T]P

= 1/4 [(1, 3), (-1, 1)][(3, 3), (1, 5)][(1, -3), (1, 1)]

= 1/4 [(1, 3), (-1, 1)][(6, 18), (8, 28)]

= 1/4 [(1, 3), (-1, 1)][(6, 18), (8, 28)]

= 1/4 [(30, 90), (10, 30)]

= [(7.5, 22.5), (2.5, 7.5)]

So, the matrix representation of T, [T], in the basis of eigenvectors is D = [(7.5, 22.5), (2.5, 7.5)].

To know more about matrix visit

brainly.com/question/28180105

#SPJ4

Answer:

1/4 or 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

Theres a 1/4 chance of it landing on red.

Answer:

they be correct

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression that results when the change of base formula is applied to log4(x+2) is log(x+2) / log(4).

1- Apply the change of base formula to log(x + 2):

log(x + 2) = log(x + 2) / log(10)

2- Apply the change of base formula to log(4):

log(4) = log(4) / log(10)

3- Rewrite the original expression, substituting the step 1 and step 2 results:

log(x + 2) / log(4) = (log(x + 2) / log(10)) / (log(4) / log(10))

4- Simplify by multiplying the numerator and denominator by the reciprocal of log(10):

log(x + 2) / log(4) = (log(x + 2) / log(10)) * (log(10) / log(4))

5- Cancel out log(10) in the numerator and denominator so we get:

     = log(x + 2) / log(4)

Therefore, the expression resulting from applying the change of base formula to log4(x + 2) is log(x + 2) / log(4).

You can learn more about change of base formula at

https://brainly.com/question/30237855

#SPJ11

Answer:

164

Step-by-step explanation:

15(5)

2(7)

15(5)

add em up

75 plus 14 plus 75

a) The probability that 15 to 20 (inclusive) of the donors are Rh-negative is 0.5406.

b) The probability that more than 80 of the donors are Rh-positive is 0.0199.

(a) Given that p = 0.18 and q = 0.82

The mean, μ = np = 95 × 0.18 = 17.1

The variance, σ² = npq = 95 × 0.18 × 0.82 = 13.77

Then, the standard deviation σ = √(npq) = √13.77 ≈ 3.71

Using the Normal approximation for binomial distribution, we need to find the probabilities of P(X ≤ 20) and P(X ≤ 14).

P(X ≤ 20) = P(Z ≤ (20 - μ) / σ) = P(Z ≤ (20 - 17.1) / 3.71) = P(Z ≤ 0.78) = 0.7823P(X ≤ 14) = P(Z ≤ (14 - μ) / σ) = P(Z ≤ (14 - 17.1) / 3.71) = P(Z ≤ -0.84) = 0.2005

The required probability is given by;

P(15 ≤ X ≤ 20) = P(X ≤ 20) - P(X ≤ 14) = 0.7823 - 0.2005 = 0.5406

Therefore, the probability that 15 to 20 (inclusive) of the donors are Rh-negative is 0.5406.

b) We are required to find the probability that X > 80.Given that p = 0.82 and q = 0.18

The mean, μ = np = 95 × 0.82 = 77.9

The variance, σ² = npq = 95 × 0.82 × 0.18 = 13.77

Then, the standard deviation σ = √(npq) = √13.77 ≈ 3.71P(X > 80) = P(Z > (80 - μ) / σ) = P(Z > (80 - 77.9) / 3.71) = P(Z > 0.57) = 0.2843

The probability that more than 80 of the donors are Rh-positive is 0.0199.

Learn more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/15570919

#SPJ11