Which expression is equivalent to 8x-12y+32?

Answer:

x>15

Step-by-step explanation:

it eats the bigger number

Answer:

x = 39

Step-by-step explanation:

In the image, in order for DE to be parallel to CB, the scale factor between AE and EB should be the same as between AD and DC. To solve this, you first need to identify these lines:

AE = 12, EB = x - 3

AD = 6, DC = 18

Now, you need to find the scale factor by dividing 18 by 6:

18 ÷ 6 = 3

So the scale factor from AD to DC is 3. This means that the scale factor from AE (12) to EB should also be 3. You can find x by writing and solving an equation:

12 × 3 = x - 3 (given)

36 = x - 3 (simplify)

x = 39 (add 3 to both sides)

So x = 39.

Answer:

Therefore, option A,B and C cannot be the angles of triangles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that total angles in a triangle is 180° so you have to add up all the angles :

Option A,

45° + 45° + 45° = 135° (Not a triangle)

Option B,

60° + 75° + 35° = 170° (Not a triangle)

Option C,

60.5° + 59.5° + 59° = 179° (Not a triangle)

Option C,

65° + 60° + 55° = 180° (It is triangle)

Answer:

8x-8

Step-by-step explanation:

10x-2x=8x

-3-5=-8

Answer:

$805,000

I didn't provide a step-by-step explanation, but if I need to just comment onto my answer and I will provide one.

Hope this helps!

Let me know if you have anymore questions. I would be happy to help.

Answer:

put the top number of the fraction (numerator) inside the division bracket and the bottom number (denominator) outside, to the left of the division bracket. The fraction 1/4 becomes 1 ÷ 4. Complete the division to convert the fraction to a decimal.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

C, or "The data is symmetrically"

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because when having both the median and the mean the same, this means their is a perfectly symmetrical distribution of data. Making both the mean and median the same.

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know the answer to that.

Answer:

53 minus 20 equal 33

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$8645.73

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the compound interest formula :

A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

A = final amount = 18000

r = rate = 6.5% = 0.065

n = number of compounding tines per period, biannually, once in 2 years = 0.5

18000 = P(1 + 0.065/0.5)^(0.5*12)

18000 = P(1 + 0.13)^6

18000 = P(2.081951752609)

18000 / 2.081951752609 = P

= 8645.7334

= $8645.73

Answer:

[tex]52-p<43[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

There was a total of 52 players but then some left the team. Since we don't know how many left, we use a variable. Left indicates subtraction, so the equation would be 52 - p.

However we still have the last sentence of the information. Since 43 players remain and we don't know how many players left, I put the '<' sign.

Thus, my answer was: [tex]52-p<43[/tex]

Answer:

the answers would be D and E

Step-by-step explanation:

hope that helped

Answer:

The series of transformations that apply are a vertical compression by a factor of 2 and a translation of 4 units down.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a slope-intercept function, the coefficient of the variable determines whether the graph opens up or down, as well as the amount it stretches. If a function's coefficient is greater than 1, as the value of the coefficient increases, the function becomes more vertically compressed. If a function's coefficient is less than 1 but greater than 0, as the coefficient gradually approaches 0, the function becomes more vertically stretched. Since the function's coefficient went from 1 to 2, that means the graph of the function is being vertically compressed by a factor of 2. A slope-intercept function's constant is the graph's y-intercept since the y-value would be that when x is equal to 0. Since the constant went from 0 to -4, that means the graph of the function has been translated down 4 units. So the correct choices would be a vertical compression by a factor of 2, and a translation of 4 units down.

Answer:

I think your answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A= 153.86

Step-by-step explanation:

49×3.14= 153.86

Answer:

Area= 153.86 inches²

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

to find the perimeter of a polygon you just do "a regular polygon with n n sides and the length of one side s s: P = n × s P = n × s "

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d. 2x³y + 12x²y² + 18xy³

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume = l x b x h

= 2xy × x + 3y × x + 3y

= 2xy × (x + 3y)²

= 2xy × (x² + 6xy + 9y²)

= 2x³y + 12x²y² + 18xy³

Answer:

The correct answer is "550". A further explanation is given below.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given values are:

Selling price,

= 450

Loss,

= 10%

Profit,

= 10%

As we know,

⇒  [tex]CP=\frac{100}{100-Loss \ percent}\times SP[/tex]

On substituting the values, we get

⇒         [tex]=\frac{100}{100-10}\times 450[/tex]

⇒         [tex]=\frac{100}{90}\times 450[/tex]

⇒         [tex]=500[/tex]

⇒  [tex]Profit=500\times \frac{10}{100}[/tex]

⇒              [tex]=50[/tex]

Now,

Selling price on 10% profit will be:

⇒  [tex]SP=CP+profit[/tex]

On substituting the values, we get

⇒        [tex]=500+50[/tex]

⇒        [tex]=Rs. \ 550[/tex]

Answer:

Area=60

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle:

A=1/2*h*b

Substitute:

Height = h = 15

Base = b = 8

A=1/2*8*15

Solve:  A=60

* represents multiplication

Answer:

A stem and leaf diagram displays numerical data.The stem and leaf diagram is ordered if the data is in numerical order.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't see a problem on the screen

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7x when x=2=7×2=14 is your answer

Answer:

29.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

1.30 × 800 = £1040  

25% of 800 = 200

800 - 200 = 600 poppy lapel pins given to the charity  

70% of 600 = 420

420 × 2.50 = £1050

30% of 600 = 180

180÷3 = 60  

60 × 5.00 = £300  

[tex]\frac{1050+300-1040}{1040}[/tex] = 29.8076923

= 29.8% to one decimal place

I hope I helped :)

The company should make a percentage profit of approximately 29.8%.

Given that a company makes Poppy Lapel Pins.

Each of them costs £1.30 to make.

In October 800 lapel pins were made from which 25% were given to charities,

The rest are sold in two formats:

70% of them at £2.50 each

30% of them at £5.00 for 3.

We need to find the percentage profit the company should make.

To calculate the percentage profit, we first need to determine the total cost of manufacturing the lapel pins and the total revenue generated from their sales.

Total Cost:

Cost per lapel pin = £1.30

Number of lapel pins manufactured = 800

Total cost = £1.30 × 800 = £1040

Total Revenue:

Number of lapel pins given to charities = 25% of 800 = 0.25 × 800 = 200

Number of lapel pins available for sale = 800 - 200 = 600

Format 1:

70% of lapel pins sold at £2.50 each:

Number of lapel pins = 0.70 × 600 = 420

Revenue from this format = £2.50 × 420 = £1050

Format 2:

30% of lapel pins sold at £5.00 for 3:

Number of lapel pins = 0.30 × 600 = 180

Revenue from this format = (£5.00 ÷ 3) × 180 = £300

Total Revenue = Revenue from Format 1 + Revenue from Format 2 = £1050 + £300 = £1350

Profit:

Profit = Total Revenue - Total Cost = £1350 - £1040 = £310

Percentage Profit:

Percentage Profit = (Profit ÷ Total Cost) × 100

Percentage Profit = (£310 ÷ £1040) × 100 ≈ 29.8%

Therefore, the company should make a percentage profit of approximately 29.8%.

Learn more about Percentage Profit click;

https://brainly.com/question/30938251

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Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

if 4 $ is what it cost for 7yds than under seven yds (where) the red box is needs how much 7 costs

Answer:

66

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, 72 - 6 = 66

So, 72 - 66 = 6

y = 66

Answer:

a(4) = 15/4

Step-by-step explanation:

The general formula for a geometric series with common ratio r and first term a(1) is

a(n) = a(1)*r^(n - 1)

and so, if a(1) = 30 and r = 1/2, we have

a(n) = 30*(1/2)^(n - 1)

and the fourth term is then:

a(4) = 30*(1/2)^(4 - 1) = 30/8 = 15/4

Answer:

A = 250

B = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Why A equals 250 is because 10 squared 5 equals 500 and 500 divided by 2 equals 250.

Why B equals  10 is because 10 minus 5 is 5 we do that first cause its in pentises and 10 squared times 2 equals 200 and 200 times 5 equals 1000 so 1000 divide 100 is 10

Hope i helped

Answer:

j = 0  or j = 30

Step-by-step explanation:

j² - 30j = 0

Factorise j out of both terms on the left side.

j (j-30) = 0

Apply zero product rule.

j = 0  or j-30 = 0

Find the value of j.

j = 0  or j = 30