ANSWER QUICK PLS
look at the trapezium below, work out the size of angle
angle tuv
angle vwt
give your answer in degrees

Answer:

G=38

Step-by-step explanation:

27 +11 = 38

I hope this helps!

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months of the year, so there are 12 possible choices for each draw. Since the first paper is replaced before the second draw, each draw can be considered as independent and with replacement.

(a) To draw April and then June, we need to draw April on the first draw (with probability 1/12), and then June on the second draw (with probability 1/12). The probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(April and then June) = (1/12) x (1/12) = 1/144

(b) To draw a month ending in r and then a month ending in y, we can choose from the following months: April, June, July, September, and November. There are 5 months that end in r, so the probability of drawing one of them on the first draw is 5/12. After replacing the first paper, there are still 12 months left in the hat, but now we want to draw a month ending in y. There are 4 months that end in y, so the probability of drawing one of them on the second draw is 4/12. Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(month ending in r and then month ending in y) = (5/12) x (4/12) = 5/36

(c) To draw May on the first draw and not draw May on the second draw, the probability of drawing May on the first draw is 1/12, and the probability of not drawing May on the second draw is 11/12 (since there are 11 months left in the hat after May is drawn on the first draw). Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(May and then not drawing May) = (1/12) x (11/12) = 11/144

Therefore, the probabilities are:

(a) 1/144

(b) 5/36

(c) 11/144

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 12 months of the year, so there are 12 possible choices for each draw. Since the first paper is replaced before the second draw, each draw can be considered as independent and with replacement.

(a) To draw April and then June, we need to draw April on the first draw (with probability 1/12), and then June on the second draw (with probability 1/12). The probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(April and then June) = (1/12) x (1/12) = 1/144

(b) To draw a month ending in r and then a month ending in y, we can choose from the following months: April, June, July, September, and November. There are 5 months that end in r, so the probability of drawing one of them on the first draw is 5/12. After replacing the first paper, there are still 12 months left in the hat, but now we want to draw a month ending in y. There are 4 months that end in y, so the probability of drawing one of them on the second draw is 4/12. Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(month ending in r and then month ending in y) = (5/12) x (4/12) = 5/36

(c) To draw May on the first draw and not draw May on the second draw, the probability of drawing May on the first draw is 1/12, and the probability of not drawing May on the second draw is 11/12 (since there are 11 months left in the hat after May is drawn on the first draw). Again, the probability of both events happening is the product of their probabilities:

P(May and then not drawing May) = (1/12) x (11/12) = 11/144

Therefore, the probabilities are:

(a) 1/144

(b) 5/36

(c) 11/144

Answer:

$8.45

Step-by-step explanation:

$1.25 + $1.25 =$2.50

$3.96 + $2.50 + $2.50 = $8.95

$8.95 - $ 0.50= $8.45

So that's how I got my and.

Jalissa's mom spent $8.45 at the coffee shop.

Steps:-

Add:

First cup of coffee. $3.95

Additional refill ($1.25×2). $2.50

Bagel. $2.50

Less: Discount. ($0.50)

Total Amount spent by

Jalissa's mom. $8.45

Answer:

  $1200

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to know the amount borrowed at 7.2% if the simple interest for one year is $86.40.

The interest formula is ...

  I = Prt

where P is the amount borrowed, r is the interest rate, and t is the number of years.

Using the given values, we have ...

  86.40 = P·0.072·1

  P = 86.40/0.072 . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of P

  P = 1200

You have borrowed $1200.

Answer: 1200

Step-by-step explanation: Linear equation. 7.2x = 100(86.40). then divide by 7.2 on each side. x=1200

Answer: 14.85

Step-by-step explanation:

1.485 * 10^1 =14.85

Answer: -4,6

Step-by-step explanation:

To reflect a point across a horizontal line, we keep the x-coordinate the same, but negate the y-coordinate of the point. In this case, the line of reflection is y = -7. Therefore, to find the image coordinate of K′, we negate the y-coordinate of K and add 3 (since -7 - (-6) = -1):

K′(-4, -6 - (-7) + 3) = K′(-4, 4)

So the correct answer is K′(-4, 4)

Answer:

7 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

15 ft - 8 ft = 7 ft

See my explanation on your other post asking a similar question to this one!

Answer:

9ft

Step-by-step explanation:

14 of the longest length

subtracted by 5 becuase they are parallel of each other including the missing one.

14-5=9

Answer:

31 1/4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for volume of a rectangular prism is length x width x height.

We know the length of the width and height are given as 2 1/2 u.

In this case we can simply find the height by counting the amount of blocks high it is, which in this case is 5.

Then we multiply the numbers together.

2 1/2 x 2 1/2 x 5 = 31 1/4

Answer:

no triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the measures of a triangle is 180°.

70° + 85° + 105° = 260°

Since the sum of the given measures is 260°, no triangle with these angle measures can be constructed since it cannot exist.

12 Popsicles I think I'm not sure

Answer:

$9,660

Step-by-step explanation:

$23 x $420 = $9,660

Answer:5 1/2 for the first box and second I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I'm gonna say the  second one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: Your answer is -4+(-9)

Hope it helped :D

Answer:

1/32

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling a 6 on a 6-sided die is 1/6, and the probability of rolling a 4 on a 6-sided die is also 1/6.

Assuming that the rolls are independent (i.e., the outcome of one roll does not affect the outcome of the other roll), the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 is the product of the probabilities of each individual event:

Probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 = (Probability of rolling a 6) x (Probability of rolling a 4)

= (1/6) x (1/6)

= 1/36

Therefore, the probability of rolling a 6 and then a 4 on a 6-sided die rolled twice is 1/36, or approximately 0.0278 (2.78%).

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Convert the 2 miles into ft. 2*5280=10560.

2. Convert the 18 inches to ft. 18/12=1.5ft

3. Divide. 10560/1.5=7040

Hopefully that was corect! :)

Answer: 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

From the dice numbers only 1 and 2 are factors of 14

P(factor of 14)=2/6= 1/3

Answer:

A factor of 4 can only be 4 itself, which is one of the possible outcomes of rolling a 6-sided dice.

Therefore, the probability of getting a factor of 4 when rolling a 6-sided dice is:

P(getting factor of 4) = 1/6

This can be written as a fraction in the form of 1/n, where n is the total number of possible outcomes (6):

P(getting factor of 4) = 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

i think i did a mistale and extremely confused and restless thinking that , what shall i do?

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

100%

all 3 can be divided into 36

Answer: 100%

Step-by-step explanation:

Because we know 1,2,3 can all go into 36 (36 is able to be divided by 1,2,3) and we want the percentage of the divisor of 36. We can determine that it would be 100% Since whatever card we pick, can be divided into 36. Sorry if that made no sense, I'm not the best at explaining this.

Answer: B) The answer is 125

Step-by-step explanation:

when u solve the equation you will get 125.

Answer:

the answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

33.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 sections the spinner can land on, and only one meets the requirement (less than 3, so the 2 section is the only one). Therefore the chance of landing on 2 is 1/3, or 0.333...... which can be converted into percentage by multiplying it by a hundred.

-0.333..... x 100 = 33.33333....

If this helped, please consider picking this answer as the Brainliest Answer. Thank you!

so first off, we know the hyperbola has a horizontal traverse axis, so that means equation wise, the positive fraction is the one with the "x" variable on it, center is the origin, meaning (h,k) is just (0,0), and we know the value for the distances "a" and "c", let's find "b".

[tex]\textit{hyperbola, horizontal traverse axis } \\\\ \cfrac{(x- h)^2}{ a^2}-\cfrac{(y- k)^2}{ b^2}=1 \qquad \begin{cases} center\ ( h, k)\\ vertices\ ( h\pm a, k)\\ c=\textit{distance from}\\ \qquad \textit{center to foci}\\ \qquad \sqrt{ a ^2 + b ^2} \end{cases} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \begin{cases} h=0\\ k=0\\ c=71000\\ a=45000 \end{cases}\implies \cfrac{(x- 0)^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{(y- 0)^2}{ b^2}=1 \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill[/tex]

[tex]\stackrel{c}{71000}=\sqrt{\underset{ a }{45000^2}+b^2}\implies 71000^2=45000^2+b^2 \\\\\\ 71000^2-45000^2=b^2\implies \sqrt{71000^2-45000^2}=b\implies 54918.12\approx b \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \cfrac{(x- 0)^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{(y- 0)^2}{ 54918.12^2}=1\implies {\Large \begin{array}{llll} \cfrac{x^2}{ 45000^2}-\cfrac{y^2}{ 54918.12^2}=1 \end{array}}[/tex]

Answer:16000

Step-by-step explanation:

b

Answer:

4th option

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the fourth option is the only option where the y-intercept is 15, which refers to the base price, and also 10x shows that every hour adds 10 dollars to the 15 dollar base price, and as the question says, it is higher than the 7.5 dollars an hour in the table above.

If this helped, please consider picking this answer as the Brainliest Answer. Thank you!

Answer: Your answer is 420 miles

Step-by-step explanation: I did this in middle school

Hope it helped :D

Answer: 1/5, 0.2, or 20%

Step-by-step explanation: P(4) means the probability (P) of getting the number 4, therefore written as P(4). As there are 5 cards, and 1 of them has a four on them, it can be written as 1/5, as one out of the five cards have a four on them. Convert it into a decimal, by using a calculator or past knowledge so 1 divided by 5. You get 0.2. Keep in mind that 1.0 is 100% and anything below, such as 0.5 (50%) or 0.1 (10%), are all decimals. Because we got 0.2, the answer in percentages is 20%, or 0.2 of 1.0.

Answer:

20%

Step-by-step explanation:

P stands for the chance of getting something, in this case it's the number 4.

There is 1 card that has 4 on it and 5 cards in total, so it would be 1/5

1/5 or/ 1 divided by 5 equals to 0.2 which is also equal to the percentage 20%

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because she bought a new hat for 22 dollars, subtract that from the 80 dollars.

1. 80-22=58

Next, each bow costs 5 dollars so you’ll have to see how many times 5 goes into 58 to get your answer.

2. 58/5= 11 with three dollars remaining.

That means Georgia can purchase 11 bows with the remaining money.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Because she bought a new hat for 22 dollars, subtract that from the 80 dollars.

1. 80-22=58

Next, each bow costs 5 dollars so you’ll have to see how many times 5 goes into 58 to get your answer.

2. 58/5= 11 with three dollars remaining.

That means Georgia can purchase 11 bows with the remaining money.

Answer:

The answer is the X-Axis!

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions ask me please! :)