1. Do you accept your hypothesest 2. What effect did UV radiation have! 3. Did UV radiation penetrate the material you used to shield the plate? 4. What evidence, if any, did you be of light repair!

Answers

Answer 1

Based on the hypothesis, UV rays have a big effect on our bodies. Among them are skin cancer, eye damage and decreased immune system. UV rays will not penetrate the materials used to protect the body.

There are some materials that are impenetrable to UV rays such as bright, high-density clothing, metals, glass and thick plastics and sunscreen. The way to repair skin exposed to UV rays is to wash it with cold water and apply a special ointment for sunburn.

UV rays are part of electromagnetic waves, namely solar radiation in the 100-400 nm band. UV rays that can reach the earth's surface are UV A and UV B rays, with a wavelength of about 100 nm to 1 mm. UV rays are very harmful to the body, so when leaving the house we must always wear protection. So that our skin is not directly in contact with UV rays.

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Related Questions

the oldest living individual organisms in the world are a type of:

Answers

The oldest living individual organisms in the world are a type of bacteria known as cyanobacteria or blue-green algae.

These microscopic organisms have been found to exist in various locations around the world, including hot springs and salty lakes. The oldest known cyanobacteria are estimated to be around 3.5 billion years old,

making them some of the oldest living organisms on Earth. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, meaning they are capable of converting sunlight into energy, and

they play an important role in many ecosystems as primary producers. Despite their small size, cyanobacteria have had a significant impact on the Earth's atmosphere and the evolution of life on our planet.

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IN EXERCISE 3 (DIVERGING LINEAGES) YOU GENERATED A BEST FIT LINE FOR DIFFERENCES VS GENERATIONS. WHAT WAS THE SLOPE OF THAT LINE?
POSITIVE
NEGATIVE
FLAT
UNKNOWn

Answers

Since the precise data and analysis used to produce the line were not supplied, it is unknown what slope the best fit line for differences vs. generations in Exercise 3 (Diverging Lineages) actually has.

What is a good example of a line's slope?

The ratio of the change in the y-value to the change in the x-value can also be used to determine slope. For instance: We can get the slope of a line given two locations, P = (0, -1) and Q = (4,1) on the line.

Slope: Is it a line?

In mathematics, slope, also known as gradient, is a term used to describe the steepness and direction of a line or a segment of a line that connects two points. It is typically represented by the symbol m.

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why is there a need for dnase treatment of total rna before performing qpcr

Answers

Therefore, DNase treatment of total RNA is necessary before performing qPCR to remove genomic DNA contamination and obtain accurate results.

There is a need for DNase treatment of total RNA before performing qPCR because total RNA often contains genomic DNA, which can interfere with qPCR measurements. When genomic DNA is present in the sample, it can be amplified along with the RNA during qPCR, leading to inaccurate results. DNase treatment is used to remove any genomic DNA that may be present in the sample, ensuring that only RNA is measured during qPCR. This is particularly important when studying gene expression, as accurate quantification of RNA levels is critical for understanding gene regulation and function. By ensuring that only RNA is measured during qPCR, researchers can more accurately determine the amount of gene expression in their samples. So, in summary, DNase treatment helps to ensure that only RNA is measured during qPCR, allowing for more accurate gene expression measurements.

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what did the initial mating experiment between glowing fish discover? select all that apply.
a.Glow fish can't reproduce.
b.Only males can pass on the glow trait.
c.Glow fish can reproduce.
d.Glow fish can't pass on the glow trait.
e.Glow fish can pass on the alow trait.

Answers

During the initial breeding experiment of glowing fish, it was discovered that they are capable of reproducing and passing on the glowing trait to their offspring.

Define reproduction.

Reproduction is the process of generating offspring, and it can occur through asexual or sexual means. Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of genetic material from both parents, resulting in genetically unique offspring. On the other hand, asexual reproduction involves a single parent replicating itself, producing genetically identical offspring.

Glofish follow the typical reproductive process of their species. A female Glofish can lay several hundred eggs in one clutch and continue to lay an egg every two to three days. When born, each GloFish inherits its distinct color from its parents, which it retains throughout its life and passes on to its own offspring. The genes responsible for producing fluorescent proteins in GloFish are derived from naturally occurring genes found in marine species.

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for the most part, every living organism on earth uses the same genetic code. therefore, the genetic code is considered

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The genetic code is considered universal because it is the common language used by most living organisms to translate genetic information stored in DNA or RNA sequences into functional proteins.

This shared genetic code allows for the consistent interpretation of genetic information across various species, which facilitates communication, understanding, and the transfer of genetic material between organisms.

The universality of the genetic code is a key factor in the study of molecular biology and evolutionary relationships among living organisms.

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eview novel antimicrobial strategies that are under investigation in laboratories today by completing the sentences.
Strategies are being developed to disrupt the capabilities of bacteria such as ________ Staphylococcus aureus, which may help wipe out antibiotic-resistant strains of this and other microorganisms.
-iron-scavenging
_________is a method that employs small pieces of nucleic acid to regulate the expression of genes in an attempt to shut down the metabolism of pathogenic microbes
-RNA interference
The uses of ______1_____, preparations of live microorganisms that are ingested to improve intestinal biota, and ____2____, nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial intestinal microbes, are being pursued as alternatives to the use of traditional antibiotics that are more problematic.
-(1) probiotics
-(2) prebiotics
Host defense peptides, such as ____1____ and protegins, along with bacterial defensive peptides such as ____2____, may be more effective than narrowly targeted drugs in current use and may be much less likely to foster resistance
-(1) magainins
-(2) lantibiotics
Scientists are also reevaluating the therapeutic use of ________, which exhibit precise target specificity and have been shown in limited studies to be useful in the treatment of some biofilm infections
-bacteriophages

Answers

Strategies under investigation to combat antibiotic-resistant bacteria include iron-scavenging, RNA interference, probiotics and prebiotics, host defense peptides, bacterial defensive peptides, and bacteriophages.

What are eview novel antimicrobial strategies?

Strategies are being developed to disrupt the capabilities of bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus, which may help wipe out antibiotic-resistant strains of this and other microorganisms, including iron-scavenging.

RNA interference is a method that employs small pieces of nucleic acid to regulate the expression of genes in an attempt to shut down the metabolism of pathogenic microbes.

The uses of probiotics, preparations of live microorganisms that are ingested to improve intestinal biota, and prebiotics, nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial intestinal microbes, are being pursued as alternatives to the use of traditional antibiotics that are more problematic.

Host defense peptides, such as magainins and protegins, along with bacterial defensive peptides such as lantibiotics, may be more effective than narrowly targeted drugs in current use and may be much less likely to foster resistance.

Scientists are also reevaluating the therapeutic use of bacteriophages, which exhibit precise target specificity and have been shown in limited studies to be useful in the treatment of some biofilm infections.

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What is the example of an organism that is diploblastic?
O coral
O flatworm
O sponge
O arthropod

Answers

An example of an organism that is diploblastic is a coral.

Diploblastic organisms have two germ layers, the ectoderm and the endoderm which form during embryonic development . In this case, corals are diploblastic organisms lacking mesoderm, while flatworms, sponges, and arthropods are not. Flatworms and arthropods are triploblastic. Sponges have a cellular level of organisation. Triploblastic organism refers having a body derived from three embryonic cell layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm)


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Which option best describes the organisms decomposers interact with when playing their role in the ecosystem?


dead and living animals

dead organisms across trophic levels

dead and living plants

other decomposers

Answers

Dead organisms across trophic levels best describes the organisms decomposers interact with when playing their role in the ecosystem. Therefore, option (C) is correct.

Decomposers possess the last trophic level or the highest point of the environmental pyramid. Fungi are the most common decomposers. They are the main provocateurs of disintegration.

In many ecosystems, the primary decomposers are fungi and bacteria; They fuel their metabolic processes with the chemical energy found in waste and dead matter. Detritivores, also known as debris eaters, are additional decomposers.

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Force generation in muscle depends on the interaction of the thin filaments with the thick filaments within a sarcomere. (Would you please help me with these questions)
A) Name four main proteins that make up the sarcomere plus one interaction partner for each of protein.
B) What protein(s) control the interaction between the thick and thin filaments?
C) Which band(s) grow smaller and/or disappear during contraction of the sarcomere? Why? Be specific.
D) Under which condition(s) does a sarcomere produce optimal force? Why? Be specific. Additionally, mention the conditions in which the sarcomere produces a non-optimal force.

Answers

A) The four main proteins that make up the sarcomere, along with their interaction partners, are (1) Actin-Tropomyosin, (2) Myosin-Actin, (3) Troponin-Calcium ions, and (4) Titin-Actin and myosin.
B) The proteins that control the interaction between the thick and thin filaments are Tropomyosin and Troponin.
C) The I band and H zone grow smaller and/or disappear during the contraction of the sarcomere.
D) A sarcomere produces optimal force when it is at its optimal length, which is typically around 2.0 - 2.2 micrometers.

The I band and H zone grow smaller and/or disappear during the contraction of the sarcomere because the myosin (thick) filaments pull on the actin (thin) filaments, causing the sarcomere to shorten. The I band contains only thin filaments, and the H zone contains only thick filaments; when the sarcomere shortens, these regions become less distinct.

A sarcomere produces optimal force when it is at its optimal length, which is the length at which the maximum number of cross-bridges can form between the thick and thin filaments. This is because when the sarcomere is at its optimal length, the actin and myosin protein filaments overlap to the greatest extent, allowing for the most efficient transfer of force. Non-optimal force production occurs when the sarcomere is too short or too long.

If it is too short, the actin filaments may overlap and hinder cross-bridge interactions, and if it is too long, there may be minimal overlap between the filaments, reducing the number of potential cross-bridge interactions.

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what is the dilution factor in tube one compared to stock in exponential form?

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The dilution factor in tube one compared to the stock in exponential form can be explained as the ratio of the final concentration of a solution to its initial concentration after dilution.

This factor represents the degree to which the stock solution has been diluted to obtain the desired concentration in tube one. In exponential form, the dilution factor is often written as a base raised to a power, such as 10^-x, where x represents the exponent value that indicates the dilution magnitude. To calculate the dilution factor, you need to know the initial concentration of the stock solution and the final concentration of the diluted solution in tube one. Then, you can determine the ratio of these two concentrations.

For example, if the initial concentration of the stock solution is 1,000,000 cells/mL and the final concentration in tube one is 1,000 cells/mL, the dilution factor would be 1,000,000 / 1,000 = 1,000. In exponential form, this dilution factor can be represented as 10^3, which means the stock solution has been diluted 1,000 times to obtain the concentration in tube one. The dilution factor in tube one compared to the stock in exponential form can be explained as the ratio of the final concentration of a solution to its initial concentration after dilution.

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The dilution factor in tube one compared to the stock in exponential form can be explained as the ratio of the final concentration of a solution to its initial concentration after dilution.

This factor represents the degree to which the stock solution has been diluted to obtain the desired concentration in tube one. In exponential form, the dilution factor is often written as a base raised to a power, such as 10^-x, where x represents the exponent value that indicates the dilution magnitude. To calculate the dilution factor, you need to know the initial concentration of the stock solution and the final concentration of the diluted solution in tube one. Then, you can determine the ratio of these two concentrations.

For example, if the initial concentration of the stock solution is 1,000,000 cells/mL and the final concentration in tube one is 1,000 cells/mL, the dilution factor would be 1,000,000 / 1,000 = 1,000. In exponential form, this dilution factor can be represented as 10^3, which means the stock solution has been diluted 1,000 times to obtain the concentration in tube one. The dilution factor in tube one compared to the stock in exponential form can be explained as the ratio of the final concentration of a solution to its initial concentration after dilution.

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There is three more pictures just like this, I really need help putting the (I think genotypes) into which box. ​

Answers

The genotypes of a specific cross or breeding experiment are predicted using a square diagram known as the Punnett square. It has the name of Reginald C. Punnett, who developed the strategy in 1905. The likelihood that a child will have a specific genotype is calculated by biologists using the diagram.

Punnet Square Formula and SolutionThe parents' genotypes (letters) should be known. Bb x Bb.Place one parent on each side of the punnet square.Complete the Punnet's middle square.Analyze the total number of each type's descendants.What is the purpose of Punnett squares?Predicting the changes and probabilities that can result from cross breeding is made easier with the use of a Punnett Square. Predicting the cross-pollination of plants, animals.

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below, and that a GATC motif is located about 300 bp away. Assume that the enzymes used for DNA repair in E. coli are available, and that the methylation status of the GATC is used to regulate replication as it is in E. coli. Note that the A on the bottom strand is methylated.
10 ... 310 320 330
5' GGACGGATCC ...TAAGCTGGTGGTGGTGGGCGCCGGCGGTGT
3' CCTGCCTAGG ...ATTCGACCACCACCACCCGCGGCAGCCACA
m ...
What enzymes would be used to repair this error?
A. MutHLS
B. UmuC plus UmuD
C. Guanine-N-glycosylase plus AP endonuclease
D. UvrABC plus UvrD
E. None of the above systems can repair this error

Answers

Based on the information given, the GATC motif is important for regulating replication and the A on the bottom strand is methylated, indicating that the GATC site has been replicated recently. Therefore, the error in the sequence may have occurred during replication and may require the MutHLS system for repair.

The methyl-directed mismatch repair is done after the replication process by this system. The process involves repairing mismatches by removing mismatched bases or insertion or deletion loops. This system recognizes and corrects errors at methylated GATC sites.

Therefore, the answer would be A. MutHLS. The other systems listed are involved in different types of DNA repair and may not be appropriate for this specific error.

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The most common pattern for benthic organism distributions is:
a. clumped distribution.
b. negative binomial distribution.
c. random distribution.
d. uniform distribution.

Answers

The most common pattern for benthic organism distributions is clumped distribution, where individuals are found in patches or clusters. This is often due to localized environmental factors such as food availability, shelter, or substrate type. However, other distribution patterns such as negative binomial, random, and uniform can also occur depending on the specific species and habitat.

Clumped patterns usually occur when resources are concentrated in small areas within a larger habitat or because of individuals forming social groups. At large spatial scales most organisms appear to have clumped distributions because their habitats are not uniformly distributed over wide areas.

Random distribution occurs where resources are distributed evenly or sporadically. Dandelions grow in a random pattern, as do many other plants whose seeds are distributed by wind. Clumped distributions are found in places where resources are.

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microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called

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Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).

These molecules are commonly found on the surface of pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and are recognized by specific receptors called pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) present on the surface of phagocytes. The binding of PAMPs to PRRs triggers a series of signaling events that activate phagocytes, leading to the phagocytosis and destruction of the invading pathogen.

Examples of PAMPs include lipopolysaccharides found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, peptidoglycan in the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria, and viral RNA or DNA. The recognition of PAMPs by phagocytes is a crucial component of the innate immune response.

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Full Question: Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called______.

Nonprotein coding pieces of pre-mRNA that are removed during RNA splicing are called:
a) SNPs
b) promoters
c) poly(A) tails
d) introns
e) exons

Answers

Your answer: Nonprotein coding pieces of pre-mRNA that are removed during RNA splicing are called: d) introns.
During RNA splicing, the pre-mRNA molecule undergoes a process where non-coding regions called introns are removed, and coding regions called exons are joined together to form the final mature mRNA molecule.

This mature mRNA is then used for protein synthesis. In molecular biology, introns are non-coding sequences of DNA or RNA that interrupt the coding sequence (exons) of a gene. Introns are found in the genes of most eukaryotic organisms, including humans.

Introns are transcribed into RNA along with exons, but they are removed from the primary transcript by a process called splicing, which occurs during RNA processing. The splicing machinery recognizes specific sequences at the boundaries of introns and exons, and removes the intron sequence, allowing the exons to be joined together to form the mature mRNA molecule.

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What angiosperm structures correspond to micro and macro-gametophytes?

Answers

The microgametophyte is found within the pollen grain, while the megagametophyte is formed within the ovule.

In angiosperms, the microgametophyte refers to the male gametophyte and the megagametophyte refers to the female gametophyte.

The microgametophyte is typically produced within the pollen grains of the flower, and it is composed of just a few cells.

In flowering plants, the microgametophyte is also known as the pollen grain. It contains two cells: the generative cell, which will eventually form the sperm cells, and the tube cell, which will grow to form the pollen tube that delivers the sperm cells to the ovule.

The megagametophyte, on the other hand, is formed within the ovule of the flower, and it is composed of many cells. It is sometimes referred to as the embryo sac.

The megagametophyte contains the female gametes, which are the egg cells. It is formed by the process of megasporogenesis, which involves the production and development of the megaspore, followed by the growth and differentiation of the megagametophyte.

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Julie’s psychologist helped her get over her fear of spiders. Which goal of psychology has the psychologist met?

Answers

Control is the correct answer

Which systems work together so oxygen can be
distributed to the cells of your body? How do these two
systems work together to accomplish this task?

Answers

Answer:c

Explanation:got 2 add 3 times

The diagram below represents a series of events in the development of a bird. which series of terms best represents the sequence of the process shown?


a- meiosis, growth, differentiation
b- meiosis, differentiation, growth
c- mitosis, meiosis, differentiation
d- mitosis, differentiation, growth

Answers

The diagram below represents a series of events in the development of a bird, and the series of terms best represents the sequence of the process shown is d- mitosis, differentiation, growth.

What is the cell process of mitosis?

The cell process of mitosis is a somatic cell division required for the growth of multicellular organisms, which occurs though the process of specialization and cell differentiation to form tissues and then organs and systems of organs.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the cell process of mitosis is required during the differentiation of multicellular organisms such as birds.

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Lions and tigers are considered separate species. However, they can interbreed. A tiger is the offspring of a male tiger and a female lion. A liger is the result of the opposite cross: a male lion and a female tiger. Male tigons and ligers are probably sterile, while females of both hybrids can have offspring. Do lions and tigers conform to the biological species concept? Which of the three stages of speciation has not occurred in these species? You might want to consult a range map showing where lions and tigers live. If this stage were to occur, what do you predict about the final outcome?

Answers

Based on the biological species concept, lions and tigers do not conform to the definition of a species, as they are capable of interbreeding and producing viable offspring. However, they are considered separate species due to their distinct physical and behavioural characteristics.

The stage of speciation that has not occurred in these species is reproductive isolation, as they are still able to interbreed and produce viable offspring. This lack of reproductive isolation suggests that the genetic differences between lions and tigers are not significant enough to completely prevent interbreeding. If reproductive isolation were to occur in these species, it would likely result in the development of two distinct and separate species, each with its own unique characteristics and evolutionary trajectory. However, this process would likely take a long time and would depend on a variety of factors, including geographic isolation, genetic drift, and natural selection.

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Based on the biological species concept, lions and tigers do not conform to the definition of a species, as they are capable of interbreeding and producing viable offspring. However, they are considered separate species due to their distinct physical and behavioural characteristics.

The stage of speciation that has not occurred in these species is reproductive isolation, as they are still able to interbreed and produce viable offspring. This lack of reproductive isolation suggests that the genetic differences between lions and tigers are not significant enough to completely prevent interbreeding. If reproductive isolation were to occur in these species, it would likely result in the development of two distinct and separate species, each with its own unique characteristics and evolutionary trajectory. However, this process would likely take a long time and would depend on a variety of factors, including geographic isolation, genetic drift, and natural selection.

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A(n) nonnative species occurs in one location on Earth and nowhere else true or false

Answers

False. When a species is considered nonnative, it is one that has been introduced outside of its normal range or distribution.

An endemic species is one that can only be found in a particular area or region.

In ecology, an endemic species is one that is local to the area in which it is found. A species may only exist in a specific tiny geographic region, like a single island, or it may only exist in a bigger area, like a continent. Endemism is not the appropriate term to describe something if it is found elsewhere.

What is a species that is unique to the planet?

The species is endemic. It only exists in one area and nowhere else on Earth in the wild. Madagascar is home to hundreds of indigenous plant and animal species. Due to their rarity, endemic species are extremely sensitive to threats.

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Scientists can observe primary productivity in the ocean from space by measuring the ____.
a. temperature of the surface water.
b. depth of the euphotic zone.
c. amount of chlorophyll in surface waters.
d. salinity of surface waters.

Answers

The answer is c. Scientists can observe primary productivity in the ocean from space by measuring the amount of chlorophyll in surface waters.

Primary productivity is the process by which photosynthetic organisms convert sunlight into organic compounds that can be used as food. Chlorophyll is the pigment that allows photosynthetic organisms to absorb sunlight, so its presence in surface waters is a good indicator of primary productivity. Measuring primary productivity in the ocean is important for understanding the health of marine ecosystems and their ability to support life.

By monitoring changes in primary productivity over time, scientists can gain insights into the impacts of climate change and other environmental factors on ocean productivity. Ultimately, understanding ocean productivity is essential for ensuring the sustainable use of ocean resources and protecting the health of our planet's largest ecosystem.

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which of the answer choices has the correct sequence of structures for blood flow through the heart & body one time? (Structures may be missing in the sequence choices, but you can still figure out the correct sequence.) O vena cavae pulmonary valve, pulmonary veins, lungs O right ventricle, bicuspid valve, aorta, right atrium O aortic valve, tricuspid valve right ventricle, vena cavae O lungs left ventricle, pulmonary arteries, right atrium

Answers

The correct sequence of structures for blood flow through the heart and body at one time is "right ventricle, bicuspid valve, aorta, right atrium."

However, it's important to note that this sequence is incomplete and inaccurate. A more accurate sequence would be vena cavae, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, bicuspid (mitral) valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, and aorta, body tissues, and organs.

None of the options depict the complete sequence of structures for blood flow through the heart and body at a time. However, we can still figure out the correct sequence for blood flow through the heart and body at a time from the second option, although it is missing some structures. Therefore, "right ventricle, bicuspid valve, aorta, right atrium" is the correct option.

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The main role of calcium ions at chemical synapses is to
Select one:
a. depolarize the axon terminal of the presynaptic cell.
b. bind to neurotransmitter receptors on the postsynaptic cell
c. cause fusion of synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane of the axon terminal.
d. interfere with IPSPs in the postsynaptic cell.
e. diffuse across the synaptic space and enter the postsynaptic cell.

Answers

The main role of calcium ions at chemical synapses is to cause fusion of synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane of the axon terminal. This process allows for the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, which can then bind to neurotransmitter receptors on the postsynaptic cell and depolarize it.

Without the influx of calcium ions, the release of neurotransmitters and subsequent communication between neurons would not be possible.

Chemical synapses are biological connections that allow impulses to travel from neurons to non-neuronal cells, like those in muscles or glands, as well as between neurons. In the central nervous system, circuit formation is made possible via chemical synapses between neurons. They are essential to the biological calculations underlying vision and thinking. They make it possible for the nervous system to communicate with and regulate many bodily processes.

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the shine-delgarno sequence attracts the large ribosomal subunit to the mrna during translation. true or false

Answers

The given statement "The Shine-Dalgarno sequence attracts the large ribosomal subunit to the mRNA during translation" is false because it attracts the small ribosomal subunit and not the large one.

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence attracts the small ribosomal subunit to the mRNA during the initiation of translation. The small ribosomal subunit recognizes and binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence, located upstream of the start codon on the mRNA. This helps to position the ribosome correctly for translation to begin.

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a short nucleotide sequence found in prokaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA) that plays a role in the initiation of translation. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is complementary to the sequence located on the 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) component of the small ribosomal subunit, which helps position the ribosome at the start codon of the mRNA.

Therefore, the statement "The Shine-Dalgarno sequence attracts the large ribosomal subunit to the mRNA during translation" is false.

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Consider that the number of ATP molecules formed through cellular respiration varies. Identify the claim that accounts for these differences.
a. The ATPs produced are immediately utilized in the anaplerotic reactions that are used for the replenishment of the intermediates.
b. Most of the ATPs produced are rapidly used for the phosphorylation of certain compounds found in plants.
c. Transport of NADH from cytosol to mitochondria is an active process that decreases the number of ATPs produced.
d. A large number of ATP molecules are used in the detoxification

Answers

The anaplerotic processes that are employed to replenish the intermediates consume the ATPs generated right away. (Position A)

How are molecules created?

The electron clouds and nuclei interact when atoms are close to one another. The atoms join together to form molecules if this interaction lowers the system's overall energy.

Why is it referred to as a molecule?

Covalent bonds are created when atoms share electrons, and the resulting group of bonded atoms is what we refer to as a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a covalent compound, much like an atom is the smallest unit of an element.

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Please help!
The presence of tiny hairs, called setae, on the toe pads of some geckos is associated with the ability to adhere to smooth surfaces. This ability allows geckos to climb in areas where many predators cannot. Scientists studying the evolution of setae have identified three closely related species of gecko, only one of which can adhere to smooth surfaces. A model of the evolutionary relatedness between these species is represented in the figure.

Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the evolutionary relationships shown in the model?

A. G. concinnatus is more closely related to G. antillensis than G. humeralis.

B. G. antillensis had more DNA and protein sequences in common with G. humeralis than G. concinnatus.

C. G. concinnatus and G. humeralis share the most recent common ancestor, as compared to G. antillensis.

D. G. humeralis is more closely related to G. concinnatus than G. antillensis.

Answers

The right response is D. G. humeralis resembles G. concinnatus more than G. antillensis. This is due to the fact that the model of evolutionary relatedness demonstrates a closer relationship between G. humeralis, G. concinnatus, and G. antillensis on the tree.

This suggests that G. antillensis and G. humeralis have a more distant common ancestor than G. concinnatus. This is further confirmed by the fact that the nearest species in the tree are the two species that can attach to smooth surfaces, G. concinnatus and G. humeralis.

This shows that the two species have recently gained the capacity to stick to smooth surfaces, and that this ability was probably passed down from a common ancestor.

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What is DNA and how does it contain the Secret of Life?

Answers

Answer: read

Explanation:

DNA is a molecule inside cells that contains the genetic information responsible for the development and function of an organism.

you can read more about it on goggle just search up how does DNA contain the secret of life.

A white flower (rr) is crossed with a white flower (rr)
Genotype - _________
Phenotype - ________

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rr and white flower

I need help asap
Has anyone done the biodiversity portfolio and the Animal Phylogenetic Tree Portfolio on person?
if you can give me the answer i will give brainlest

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Answer:

Humans have generated diversity in domestic animals, plants, and fungi. This diversity is also suffering losses because of migration, market forces, and increasing globalism in agriculture, especially in heavily-populated regions such as China, India, and Japan. The human population directly depends on this diversity as a stable food source; its decline is troubling to biologists and agricultural scientists.

It is also useful to define ecosystem diversity: the number of different ecosystems on the planet or in a given geographic area . Whole ecosystems can disappear even if some of the species might survive by adapting to other ecosystems. The loss of an ecosystem means the loss of interactions between species, the loss of unique features of co-adaptation, and the loss of biological productivity that an ecosystem is able to create. An example of a largely-extinct ecosystem in North America is the prairie ecosystem. Prairies once spanned central North America from the boreal forest in northern Canada down into Mexico. Now, they have mostly disappeared, replaced by crop fields, pasture lands, and suburban sprawl. Many of the species survive, but the hugely-productive ecosystem that was responsible for creating the most productive agricultural soils is now gone. As a consequence, soils are disappearing or must be maintained at greater expense

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